CCRN-Adult Dumps 2024 - New AACN CCRN-Adult Exam Questions
Free CCRN-Adult Braindumps Download Updated on Dec 18, 2024 with 152 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 17
The most appropriate therapy for carboxyhemoglobinemia is
- A. 100% O2 administration.
- B. inhaled corticosteroids.
- C. hyperventilation.
- D. aerosolized beta-agonists.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most appropriate therapy for carboxyhemoglobinemia, which is carbon monoxide poisoning, is the administration of 100% oxygen. This treatment helps to displace carbon monoxide from hemoglobin, allowing oxygen to bind to hemoglobin and be transported to tissues more effectively. High-flow oxygen can significantly reduce the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin, facilitating faster recovery.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 30
NEW QUESTION # 18
A patient is intubated and receiving assist control mechanical ventilation and is on a norepinephrine drip following a head injury. Patient data are:
Which of the following interventions will improve cerebral perfusion?
- A. requesting an ABG
- B. suctioning the airway
- C. administering prescribed acetaminophen
- D. increasing the norepinephrine rate
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 19
A caloric irrigation test of the oculovestibular reflex is performed on a patient who is comatose following a hypoxic brain injury. When cold water is introduced into the left ear, nystagmus occurs with slow deviation of the eyes toward the left, followed by faster eye deviation to the right. This pattern is indicative of a
- A. normal response.
- B. third cranial nerve palsy.
- C. brain-stem infarction.
- D. persistent vegetative state.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The caloric irrigation test, also known as the oculovestibular reflex test, is used to assess brainstem function in patients, especially those who are comatose. In this test, cold water is introduced into the ear canal, which should induce a predictable response if the brainstem is intact. The normal response to cold water irrigation is nystagmus with slow deviation of the eyes toward the side of the cold water (in this case, the left) and a fast phase of eye movement (nystagmus) away from the side of the cold water (to the right). This indicates that the brainstem pathways are functioning properly. References: =
* American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
* Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN
NEW QUESTION # 20
A patient is admitted with a traumatic brain injury after being thrown from a horse. Despite numerous interventions, the patient is declared brain dead.
The parents have consented for organ donation, and the patient's mother requests to lay next to her daughter before being taken to the operating room.
Which of the following is the nurse's most appropriate response?
- A. "It would be too risky to move all of the machines and wires."
- B. "I will need a few minutes to prepare and organize this for you."
- C. "We must obtain permission from the organ donation team first."
- D. "Please sit at the side of the bed, hold her hand, and talk to her."
Answer: B
Explanation:
The nurse should respect the mother's request and facilitate the family's emotional needs during the end-of-life care. The nurse should also ensure the patient's safety and dignity by preparing and organizing the necessary equipment and monitoring before moving the mother next to the patient. The other options are not appropriate because they either deny the mother's request, imply that the patient is no longer alive, or delay the organ donation process.
References:
* Donor Family Care Service - NHS Blood and Transplant
* Family-Centered Care to Improve Family Consent for Organ Donation
NEW QUESTION # 21
A patient is admitted with anaphylactic shock secondary to a blood transfusion. The patient's spouse asks the nurse to explain how blood can cause a low blood pressure. The nurse responds that with anaphylactic shock the
- A. peripheral blood vessels dilate, and this creates a maldistribution of volume.
- B. heart muscle weakens and is unable to pump effectively.
- C. autonomic nervous system is disrupted dropping blood pressure.
- D. kidneys excrete large amounts of urine dropping the blood pressure.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Anaphylactic shock is characterized by widespread vasodilation due to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. This vasodilation causes a significant drop in systemic vascular resistance and maldistribution of blood volume, leading to hypotension. The explanation addresses the pathophysiological changes that occur during anaphylactic shock. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A patient who was admitted after an open aortofemoral bypass for claudication at rest has a hemoglobin A1C of 8.9. The patient admits having poor control of blood glucose levels and is scared to use insulin as directed because of a few episodes of hypoglycemia. Which of the following should the nurse initially request to be consulted?
- A. hospital pharmacist
- B. diabetes educator
- C. vascular surgeon
- D. endocrinology
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 23
In a patient with a chest tube, an air leak in the pleural space is indicated by which of the following conditions in the water-seal chamber?
- A. fluctuation is absent
- B. bubbling increases
- C. fluctuation increases
- D. bubbling stops
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a patient with a chest tube, an air leak in the pleural space is indicated by an increase in bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Bubbling in this chamber occurs when air escapes from the pleural space into the chest drainage system. An increase in bubbling signifies an ongoing air leak, indicating that air is still entering the pleural space, often due to a bronchopleural fistula or lung injury.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page
36
NEW QUESTION # 24
A patient who experienced a blunt chest trauma in an automobile crash is admitted with multiple rib fractures.
The patient is dyspneic and hypotensive and is reporting left shoulder pain. On auscultation, a nurse notes that bowel sounds can be heard over the lower left thorax. These findings are consistent with
- A. ruptured diaphragm.
- B. mediastinal shift.
- C. ruptured abdominal viscus.
- D. flail chest.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient's findings are consistent with a ruptured diaphragm, which is a tear in the muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities. A blunt chest trauma can cause a sudden increase in intra-abdominal pressure, which can rupture the diaphragm and allow abdominal organs to herniate into the thorax. This can cause dyspnea, hypotension, shoulder pain, and bowel sounds over the lower thorax. A ruptured abdominal viscus would cause peritonitis, which would present with abdominal pain, distension, fever, and signs of sepsis. A flail chest would cause paradoxical chest movement, respiratory distress, and cyanosis. A mediastinal shift would cause tracheal deviation, decreased breath sounds, and jugular venous distension.
References:
* AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Handbook. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Handbook], p. 18.
* AACN. (2023). CCRN (Adult) Exam Blueprint. Retrieved from [CCRN Exam Blueprint], p. 2.
* BCEN. (2020). Trauma Certified Registered Nurse (TCRN) Examination Content Outline. Retrieved from [TCRN Exam Content Outline], p. 8.
* Lewis, S. L., Bucher, L., Heitkemper, M. M., Harding, M. M., Kwong, J., & Roberts, D. (2017).
Medical-surgical nursing: Assessment and management of clinical problems (11th ed.). St. Louis, MO:
Elsevier. Retrieved from [Textbook], p. 1789-1790.
NEW QUESTION # 25
A patient underwent a successful percutaneous coronary intervention to the left anterior descending coronary artery. The patient suddenly begins to complain of dyspnea, jaw pain, and chest tightness. The bedside monitor displays sinus tachycardia and ST segment elevation in lead V2. The patient's neck veins are flat and BP is
152/98. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
- A. pulmonary hypertension
- B. vasovagal reaction
- C. cardiac tamponade
- D. coronary artery occlusion
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient presents with dyspnea, jaw pain, chest tightness, and sinus tachycardia with ST segment elevation in lead V2 after a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). These symptoms are indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction, likely due to a re-occlusion of the treated coronary artery. Coronary artery occlusion is a common cause of these acute symptoms post-PCI. Other options like pulmonary hypertension, vasovagal reaction, and cardiac tamponade are less consistent with the clinical presentation. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.
NEW QUESTION # 26
A nurse has responded to a rapid response call on a medical-surgical floor in the hospital. The nurse finds the patient with the following data:
BP72/30
HR132
RR24
T102.3° F (39.0° C)
SpO295%
Ph7.13
PaCO234 mm Hg
PaO288 mm Hg
HCO3 14 mEq/L
Na+ 142 mEq/L
The nurse should anticipate an order to administer which of the following?
- A. 0.9% sodium chloride
- B. phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)
- C. 8.4% sodium bicarbonate
- D. amiodarone (Cordarone)
Answer: B
Explanation:
The patient's data indicate that the patient is in shock, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate tissue perfusion and organ dysfunction. The patient has a low blood pressure, a high heart rate, a fever, and a metabolic acidosis, which suggest that the patient may have septic shock, which is caused by a severe infection that triggers a systemic inflammatory response. The nurse should anticipate an order to administer phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine), which is a vasopressor agent that constricts the blood vessels and increases the blood pressure and tissue perfusion. Phenylephrine is recommended as a first-line agent for septic shock by the Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines1. 8.4% sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for the treatment of septic shock, as it may worsen the acid-base balance and increase the risk of complications2.
0.9% sodium chloride is a normal saline solution that may be used for fluid resuscitation, but it may not be sufficient to restore the blood pressure and may cause fluid overload, hyperchloremia, and kidney injury3.
Amiodarone (Cordarone) is an antiarrhythmic drug that is used to treat ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation, but it is not effective for septic shock and may cause hypotension, bradycardia, and other adverse effects4.
References:
* Surviving Sepsis Campaign. (2020). Surviving Sepsis Campaign: Guidelines on the Management of Critically Ill Adults with Coronavirus Disease 2019 (COVID-19). Retrieved from 1, p. 16.
* Marik, P. E., & Bellomo, R. (2013). A rational approach to fluid therapy in sepsis. British Journal of Anaesthesia, 110(3), 323-329. Retrieved from 2, p. 327.
* Semler, M. W., & Rice, T. W. (2019). Saline versus balanced crystalloids for intravenous fluid therapy in the emergency department: study protocol for a cluster-randomized, multiple-crossover trial. Trials,
20(1), 1-10. Retrieved from 3, p. 2-3.
* Lexicomp Online. (2021). Amiodarone. Retrieved from 4, p. 1-2.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A patient is admitted with an acute anterior wall MI. Initial hemodynamic readings are:
The nurse anticipates initiating a plan of care for
- A. cardiogenic shock.
- B. volume overload.
- C. pulmonary hypertension.
- D. right ventricular infarct.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The hemodynamic readings provided (BP 80/60, HR 110, CVP 20 mm Hg, PAOP 26 mm Hg, CO 2.1 L/min, CI 1.3 L/min/m², PAP 42/32 mm Hg, SVR 1762 dynes/sec/cm) suggest cardiogenic shock. This condition is characterized by low cardiac output and index, elevated filling pressures (CVP and PAOP), and systemic vascular resistance. Cardiogenic shock often occurs following an acute anterior wall myocardial infarction (MI) due to extensive damage to the myocardium, leading to impaired contractility and inadequate tissue perfusion.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 12
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is a sign of splenic injury and diaphragmatic irritation?
- A. hiccoughs
- B. tachypnea
- C. flank pain
- D. left shoulder pain
Answer: D
Explanation:
Left shoulder pain, also known as Kehr sign, is a sign of splenic injury and diaphragmatic irritation. It is caused by the irritation of the phrenic nerve, which innervates both the diaphragm and the shoulder, by blood or other fluids in the left upper quadrant. Tachypnea, flank pain, and hiccoughs are not specific signs of splenic injury or diaphragmatic irritation.
References:
* Splenic trauma | Radiology Reference Article | Radiopaedia.org
* Recognition and management of diaphragmatic injury in adults
* Reference Guide for CCRN (Adult), page 14.
NEW QUESTION # 29
When assessing a patient who has acute pancreatitis, which of the following findings require immediate notification to the provider?
- A. shortness of breath
- B. hyperglycemia
- C. hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. vomiting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acute pancreatitis
Shortness of breath is a sign of respiratory distress that may indicate a serious complication of acute pancreatitis, such as pleural effusion, atelectasis, or acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). These conditions can impair oxygenation and ventilation, and may require supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation. The provider should be notified immediately if the patient has shortness of breath, as well as other signs of respiratory distress, such as cyanosis, tachypnea, or use of accessory muscles12. Hypoactive bowel sounds, hyperglycemia, and vomiting are common findings in acute pancreatitis, but they are not as urgent as shortness of breath. They may indicate paralytic ileus, pancreatic insufficiency, or gastric outlet obstruction, respectively. These conditions can be managed with supportive measures, such as intravenous fluids, antiemetics, analgesics, and nutritional support3 .
NEW QUESTION # 30
A patient who survives near-drowning develops hypoxia-induced cerebral edema. Interventions should include
- A. hyperventilation to maintain PaCO2 of 40-45 mm Hg.
- B. maintaining a MAP of 60-70 mm Hg.
- C. keeping the patient flat, in a supine position.
- D. administration of osmotic diuretics.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hypoxia-induced cerebral edema after a near-drowning incident can be managed by administering osmotic diuretics like mannitol. These medications help reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue and into the bloodstream, thereby alleviating cerebral edema. Maintaining a MAP of 60-70 mm Hg may not be sufficient to address the elevated intracranial pressure, keeping the patient flat could worsen cerebral edema, and hyperventilation with a PaCO2 of 40-45 mm Hg is not typically recommended for managing increased intracranial pressure as it can lead to vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral perfusion. References:
= CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course
NEW QUESTION # 31
For a patient with unstable angina, the major goal of treatment is to
- A. increase preload.
- B. increase afterload.
- C. decrease myocardial contractility.
- D. decrease myocardial O2 consumption.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For a patient with unstable angina, the major goal of treatment is to decrease myocardial oxygen consumption.
This can be achieved by reducing heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial contractility to lessen the workload on the heart and reduce the demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing further ischemia and potential myocardial infarction. Treatment strategies may include the use of medications such as beta-blockers, nitrates, and calcium channel blockers, which all help in decreasing the oxygen demand of the heart.References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, page 10
NEW QUESTION # 32
Potentially life-threatening consequences of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) include
- A. intracellular hyperglycemia.
- B. cellular dehydration.
- C. respiratory alkalosis.
- D. metabolic alkalosis.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A bag of food on a hook Description automatically generated
Cellular dehydration is one of the potentially life-threatening consequences of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is a condition that occurs when the body does not have enough insulin to use glucose for energy and starts to break down fat instead. This produces ketones, which are acidic substances that accumulate in the blood and urine. DKA causes hyperglycemia, which is a high level of glucose in the blood, and osmotic diuresis, which is the loss of water and electrolytes through the urine. This leads to cellular dehydration, which is the shrinkage of the cells due to the loss of water from the intracellular fluid. Cellular dehydration can affect the brain and cause neurological symptoms, such as confusion, lethargy, coma, and death12.
Other potentially life-threatening consequences of DKA include metabolic acidosis, which is a low pH of the blood due to the excess of ketones, and respiratory compensation, which is the increase of the breathing rate and depth to expel carbon dioxide and lower the acidity of the blood12. These are not the same as metabolic alkalosis or respiratory alkalosis, which are conditions that cause a high pH of the blood due to the loss of acids or the retention of bases2. Intracellular hyperglycemia is not a consequence of DKA, as the glucose cannot enter the cells without insulin and remains in the extracellular fluid12.
NEW QUESTION # 33
An older adult patient is admitted with acute exacerbation of congestive heart failure. An echocardiogram indicates that EF is unchanged at 50%. The patient is most likely experiencing
- A. left ventricular failure.
- B. advanced heart failure.
- C. heart failure with preserved EF.
- D. heart failure with reduced EF.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is a type of heart failure that occurs when the heart muscle is stiff and does not relax well, causing high pressure in the heart and lungs. HFpEF is diagnosed when the patient has symptoms and signs of heart failure and a normal or high ejection fraction (EF), which is the percentage of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat. HFpEF is usually caused by conditions that affect the heart or blood vessels, such as aging, high blood pressure, diabetes, obesity, or kidney disease12 References:
* What Is Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction? - Healthline
* Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction - BMJ Best Practice
NEW QUESTION # 34
A terminally ill patient is deteriorating. The patient's family states, "We don't want him to suffer any more." The most appropriate response is
- A. "I will make a referral to the chaplain."
- B. "I have given him the medication that was ordered."
- C. "Do you feel he is suffering now?"
- D. "He probably isn't feeling anything right now."
Answer: C
Explanation:
This response is the most appropriate because it acknowledges the family's concern, invites them to share their perspective, and opens up a dialogue about the patient's condition and comfort. Communication with patients and families about illness progression and end of life requires sensitivity, empathy, and respect. The nurse should avoid making assumptions, giving false reassurance, or dismissing the family's emotions. Instead, the nurse should explore the family's understanding, expectations, and needs, and provide information and support accordingly12. Answer A is not appropriate because it does not address the family's emotional distress or their perception of the patient's suffering. Answer C is not appropriate because it may contradict the family's observation or belief, and it may imply that the patient is not aware of their presence or care. Answer D is not appropriate because it may seem like the nurse is avoiding the issue or imposing a religious intervention that the family may not want or need.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A patient is admitted with a femoral shaft fracture and an oblique fracture of three ribs on the right side. The patient suddenly reports shortness of breath. Assessment reveals new-onset headache, central and peripheral cyanosis, and petechiae of the neck and anterior chest wall. Available data are:
The nurse should suspect the development of
- A. acute pulmonary edema.
- B. a pulmonary embolus.
- C. sepsis.
- D. a fat embolus
Answer: D
Explanation:
The patient's clinical presentation and recent history of femoral shaft and rib fractures are highly suggestive of a fat embolism syndrome (FES). FES typically occurs after long bone fractures and is characterized by sudden onset of respiratory distress, neurological symptoms, and petechial rash, which aligns with the new-onset headache, central and peripheral cyanosis, and petechiae of the neck and anterior chest wall observed in this patient. The fat emboli originate from the bone marrow and enter the bloodstream, traveling to the lungs and other organs, leading to respiratory and systemic symptoms. References: =
* CCRN (Adult) Certification Review Course Online: Pulmonary Embolism and Fat Embolism.
* American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN). (2024). CCRN Exam Handbook. Retrieved from AACN CCRN Exam Handbook
* Adult CCRN/CCRN-E/CCRN-K Certification Review Course Online. AACN
NEW QUESTION # 36
A patient with unilateral facial droop and slurred speech has a history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. The nurse should anticipate an order for a
- A. coagulation panel.
- B. triglyceride panel.
- C. head MRI.
- D. head and neck CT scan.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Given the symptoms of unilateral facial droop and slurred speech, a stroke is highly suspected. A head and neck CT scan is the most appropriate initial imaging to quickly evaluate for the presence of an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke, which is critical for determining the appropriate treatment plan. An MRI may provide more detailed information later but is not the initial test of choice in the acute setting. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course
NEW QUESTION # 37
Assessment of a patient admitted with excruciating back pain reveals:
Appropriate therapy should include
- A. nitroprusside (Nipride).
- B. digoxin (Lanoxin).
- C. diltiazem (Cardizem).
- D. nitroglycerin.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient's vital signs indicate hypertensive urgency or emergency (BP 190/100, HR 126), with a differential radial pulse, suggesting aortic dissection. Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used in the management of hypertensive crises and can help reduce blood pressure and the shear force on the aortic wall, which is crucial in managing aortic dissection. Nitroglycerin, diltiazem, and digoxin are not appropriate first-line therapies for this condition. References: AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course, AACN CCRN Exam Handbook.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A patient with a history of COPD is admitted with increasing dyspnea and fatigue. O2 is initiated via nasal cannula at 4 L/min with an O2 saturation of 99%. One hour later, the patient becomes lethargic. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the change in the patient's mental status?
- A. absorption atelectasis
- B. depressed hypoxic drive
- C. O2 toxicity
- D. decreased end-tidal CO2
Answer: B
Explanation:
A patient with COPD may have a chronically elevated PaCO2 and rely on hypoxia as the main stimulus for breathing. If the patient receives too much oxygen, this may reduce the hypoxic drive and cause respiratory depression, leading to lethargy and hypercapnia. O2 toxicity, absorption atelectasis, and decreased end-tidal CO2 are unlikely to occur with 4 L/min of O2 via nasal cannula in a short period of time.
References:
* Reference Guide for CCRN (Adult), page 14.
* Oxygen Saturation Target of 88-92% in COPD: Evidence-based Medicine?
NEW QUESTION # 39
While recording hourly ventilator checks on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse notes that the PIP has gradually increased by 5 cm H2O over the past 4 hours. This increase indicates
- A. an improvement in pulmonary function.
- B. a decrease in lung compliance.
- C. a decrease in airway resistance.
- D. a leak in the ET tube cuff.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An increase in peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) over time in a mechanically ventilated patient indicates a decrease in lung compliance. This means the lungs are becoming stiffer and less able to expand, which can be caused by conditions such as pulmonary edema, ARDS, or pneumothorax. It is important to address the underlying cause of decreased lung compliance to prevent further respiratory complications. References: = CCRN Exam Handbook, AACN Adult CCRN Certification Review Course
NEW QUESTION # 40
The family member of a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation is to be taught suctioning. When developing a teaching plan, the nurse should first
- A. determine a schedule for demonstrating the technique.
- B. obtain written information about the procedure.
- C. identify the areas in which the family member needs information and skills.
- D. encourage the family member to observe the procedure on other patients.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The first step in developing a teaching plan is to assess the learner's needs, knowledge, and readiness to learn.
This will help the nurse tailor the teaching plan to the individual's learning style, preferences, and goals.
Obtaining written information, determining a schedule, and encouraging observation are all strategies that can be used later in the teaching plan, but they are not the first step.
References:
* AACN Essentials of Critical Care Nursing, Fourth Edition, page 18.
* Patient Education and Counseling, page 3.
NEW QUESTION # 41
The intended effects of medications for a patient in acute CHF are to
- A. reduce CVP and increase SVR.
- B. increase CVP and reduce SVR.
- C. reduce CVP and reduce SVR.
- D. increase CVP and increase SVR.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The intended effects of medications for a patient in acute CHF are to reduce CVP and reduce SVR, as this would decrease the preload and afterload on the failing heart and improve the cardiac output and tissue perfusion. CVP (central venous pressure) is a measure of the pressure in the right atrium and reflects the volume status of the patient. SVR (systemic vascular resistance) is a measure of the resistance in the systemic circulation and reflects the tone of the blood vessels. Medications that can reduce CVP and SVR in acute CHF include diuretics, nitrates, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and vasodilators12. Increasing CVP and reducing SVR would increase the preload and decrease the afterload, which may be beneficial for some patients with low cardiac output and low filling pressures, but not for patients with acute CHF and volume overload3. Reducing CVP and increasing SVR would decrease the preload and increase the afterload, which would worsen the cardiac function and oxygen demand in acute CHF3. Increasing CVP and increasing SVR would increase both the preload and the afterload, which would also worsen the cardiac function and oxygen demand in acute CHF3.
References:
* 1: Acute decompensated heart failure: Management - UpToDate4, p. 5-6.
* 2: Acute heart failure: diagnosis and management | Guidance | NICE, p. 8-9.
* 3: Hemodynamic monitoring in acute heart failure - UpToDate, p. 3-4.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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