ExamTorrent 212-82 dumps & Cyber Technician (CCT) Sure Practice with 104 Questions
New 212-82 Exam Questions| Real 212-82 Dumps
The EC-Council 212-82 (Certified Cybersecurity Technician) exam is an entry-level certification that is ideal for individuals who are looking to start their career in cybersecurity or switch their career path to cybersecurity. 212-82 exam covers a wide range of topics and is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not affiliated with any particular technology or solution. 212-82 exam is computer-based and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center worldwide. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is valid for three years and can be renewed by taking a recertification exam or earning continuing education credits.
ECCouncil 212-82 Certification Exam is an excellent way for individuals to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in cybersecurity. It is recognized by employers around the world and can help candidates stand out in a highly competitive job market. Additionally, obtaining this certification can lead to higher salaries and career advancement opportunities.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Arabella, a forensic officer, documented all the evidence related to the case in a standard forensic investigation report template. She filled different sections of the report covering all the details of the crime along with the daily progress of the investigation process.
In which of the following sections of the forensic investigation report did Arabella record the "nature of the claim and information provided to the officers"?
- A. Investigation objectives
- B. Evaluation and analysis process
- C. Investigation process
- D. Evidence information
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 49
Mark, a security analyst, was tasked with performing threat hunting to detect imminent threats in an organization's network. He generated a hypothesis based on the observations in the initial step and started the threat hunting process using existing data collected from DNS and proxy logs.
Identify the type of threat hunting method employed by Mark in the above scenario.
- A. Entity-driven hunting
- B. TTP-driven hunting
- C. Hybrid hunting
- D. Data-driven hunting
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 50
Stephen, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to implement security measures that prevent corporate data leakage on employees' mobile devices. For this purpose, he employed a technique using which all personal and corporate data are isolated on an employee's mobile device. Using this technique, corporate applications do not have any control of or communication with the private applications or data of the employees.
Which of the following techniques has Stephen implemented in the above scenario?
- A. Full device encryption
- B. OTA updates
- C. Containerization
- D. Geofencing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 51
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe". You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)
- A. KLEZ
- B. Conficker
- C. Stuxnet
- D. ZEUS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malware
NEW QUESTION # 52
Andre, a security professional, was tasked with segregating the employees' names, phone numbers, and credit card numbers before sharing the database with clients. For this purpose, he implemented a deidentification technique that can replace the critical information in database fields with special characters such as asterisks (*) and hashes (#).
Which of the following techniques was employed by Andre in the above scenario?
- A. Masking
- B. Tokenization
- C. Bucketing
- D. Hashing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Masking is the technique that Andre employed in the above scenario. Masking is a deidentification technique that can replace the critical information in database fields with special characters such as asterisks (*) and hashes (#). Masking can help protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while preserving the format and structure of the original data . Tokenization is a deidentification technique that can replace the critical information in database fields with random tokens that have no meaning or relation to the original data. Hashing is a deidentification technique that can transform the critical information in database fields into fixed-length strings using a mathematical function. Bucketing is a deidentification technique that can group the critical information in database fields into ranges or categories based on certain criteria.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Henry Is a cyber security specialist hired by BlackEye - Cyber security solutions. He was tasked with discovering the operating system (OS) of a host. He used the Unkornscan tool to discover the OS of the target system. As a result, he obtained a TTL value, which Indicates that the target system is running a Windows OS. Identify the TTL value Henry obtained, which indicates that the target OS is Windows.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 54
A company decided to implement the cloud infrastructure within its corporate firewall 10 secure sensitive data from external access. The company invested heavily in creating a cloud architecture within its premises to manage full control over its corporate dat a. Which of the following types of cloud deployment models did the company implement in this scenario?
- A. Public cloud
- B. Private cloud
- C. Multi cloud
- D. Community cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Private cloud is the type of cloud deployment model that the company implemented in this scenario. Cloud computing is a model that provides on-demand access to shared and scalable computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, applications, etc., over the internet or a network. Cloud computing can have different types based on its service or deployment model. A cloud deployment model defines how and where the cloud infrastructure and services are hosted and accessed . A cloud deployment model can have different types, such as public cloud, private cloud, hybrid cloud, community cloud, etc. A private cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides exclusive access to cloud infrastructure and services to a single organization or entity . A private cloud can be hosted within or outside the organization's premises and managed by the organization or a third-party provider . A private cloud can be used to secure sensitive data from external access and maintain full control over the corporate data . In the scenario, the company decided to implement the cloud infrastructure within its corporate firewall to secure sensitive data from external access. The company invested heavily in creating a cloud architecture within its premises to manage full control over its corporate data. This means that the company implemented a private cloud for this purpose. A multi-cloud is not a type of cloud deployment model, but a term that describes a strategy that uses multiple public or private clouds from different providers for different purposes or functions . A public cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides open access to cloud infrastructure and services to multiple organizations or entities over the internet . A public cloud can be hosted and managed by a third-party provider that owns and operates the cloud infrastructure and services . A community cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides shared access to cloud infrastructure and services to multiple organizations or entities that have common interests or goals
NEW QUESTION # 55
Juan, a safety officer at an organization, installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and Access any floor. Which of the following types of physical locks did Juan install In this scenario?
- A. Mechanical locks
- B. Digital locks
- C. Combination locks
- D. Electromagnetic locks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Digital locks are the types of physical locks that Juan installed in this scenario. A physical lock is a device that prevents or restricts access to a physical location or environment, such as a door, a cabinet, a drawer, etc. A physical lock can have different types based on its mechanism or technology. A digital lock is a type of physical lock that uses electronic or digital components, such as a keypad, a card reader, a fingerprint scanner, etc., to unlock or lock . A digital lock can be used to provide enhanced security and convenience to users, but it can also be vulnerable to hacking or tampering. In the scenario, Juan installed a physical lock at the entrance of each floor. All employees in the organization were allotted a smart card embedded in their ID cards, which had to be swiped to unlock doors and access any floor. This means that he installed digital locks for those doors. A mechanical lock is a type of physical lock that uses mechanical components, such as a key, a bolt, a latch, etc., to unlock or lock. A combination lock is a type of physical lock that uses a sequence of numbers or symbols, such as a dial, a wheel, or a keypad, to unlock or lock. An electromagnetic lock is a type of physical lock that uses an electromagnet and an armature plate to unlock or lock.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Zion belongs to a category of employees who are responsible for implementing and managing the physical security equipment installed around the facility. He was instructed by the management to check the functionality of equipment related to physical security. Identify the designation of Zion.
- A. Safety officer
- B. Chief information security officer
- C. Guard
- D. Supervisor
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 57
Nicolas, a computer science student, decided to create a guest OS on his laptop for different lab operations. He adopted a virtualization approach in which the guest OS will not be aware that it is running in a virtualized environment. The virtual machine manager (VMM) will directly interact with the computer hardware, translate commands to binary instructions, and forward them to the host OS.
Which of the following virtualization approaches has Nicolas adopted in the above scenario?
- A. Full virtualization
- B. Hardware-assisted virtualization
- C. Hybrid virtualization
- D. OS-assisted virtualization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Hardware-assisted virtualization is a virtualization approach in which the guest OS will not be aware that it is running in a virtualized environment. The virtual machine manager (VMM) will directly interact with the computer hardware, translate commands to binary instructions, and forward them to the host OS. Hardware-assisted virtualization relies on special hardware features in the CPU and chipset to create and manage virtual machines efficiently and securely34. Full virtualization is a virtualization approach in which the guest OS will not be aware that it is running in a virtualized environment, but the VMM will run in software and emulate all the hardware resources for each virtual machine5. Hybrid virtualization is a virtualization approach that combines hardware-assisted and full virtualization techniques to optimize performance and compatibility6. OS-assisted virtualization is a virtualization approach in which the guest OS will be modified to run in a virtualized environment and cooperate with the VMM to access the hardware resources
NEW QUESTION # 58
A software company develops new software products by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is responsible for checking the performance of applications in the client's network to determine any issue faced by end users while accessing the application.
Which of the following tiers of the secure application development lifecycle involves checking the application performance?
- A. Development
- B. Staging
- C. Quality assurance (QA)
- D. Testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Testing is the tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves checking the application performance in the above scenario. Secure application development is a process that involves designing, developing, deploying, and maintaining software applications that are secure and resilient to threats and attacks. Secure application development can be based on various models or frameworks, such as SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle), OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project), etc. Secure application development consists of various tiers or stages that perform different tasks or roles. Testing is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves verifying and validating the functionality and security of software applications before releasing them to end users. Testing can include various types of tests, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, performance testing, security testing, etc. Testing can be used to check the application performance and identify any errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities in the software applications. In the scenario, a software company develops new software products by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is responsible for checking the performance of applications in the client's network to determine any issue faced by end users while accessing the application. This means that he performs testing for this purpose. Development is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves creating and coding software applications according to the design and specifications. Staging is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves deploying software applications to a simulated or pre-production environment for testing or evaluation purposes. Quality assurance (QA) is a tier of the secure application development lifecycle that involves ensuring that software applications meet the quality standards and expectations of end users and stakeholders
NEW QUESTION # 59
Thomas, an employee of an organization, is restricted to access specific websites from his office system. He is trying to obtain admin credentials to remove the restrictions. While waiting for an opportunity, he sniffed communication between the administrator and an application server to retrieve the admin credentials. Identify the type of attack performed by Thomas in the above scenario.
- A. Eavesdropping
- B. Vishing
- C. Phishing
- D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 60
Rickson, a security professional at an organization, was instructed to establish short-range communication between devices within a range of 10 cm. For this purpose, he used a mobile connection method that employs electromagnetic induction to enable communication between devices. The mobile connection method selected by Rickson can also read RFID tags and establish Bluetooth connections with nearby devices to exchange information such as images and contact lists.
Which of the following mobile connection methods has Rickson used in above scenario?
- A. Cellular communication
- B. NFC
- C. ANT
- D. Satcom
Answer: B
Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is the mobile connection method that Rickson has used in the above scenario. NFC is a short-range wireless communication technology that enables devices to exchange data within a range of 10 cm. NFC employs electromagnetic induction to create a radio frequency field between two devices. NFC can also read RFID tags and establish Bluetooth connections with nearby devices to exchange information such as images and contact lists . Satcom (Satellite Communication) is a mobile connection method that uses satellites orbiting the earth to provide communication services over long distances. Cellular communication is a mobile connection method that uses cellular networks to provide voice and data services over wireless devices. ANT is a low-power wireless communication technology that enables devices to create personal area networks and exchange data over short distances.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Bob was recently hired by a medical company after it experienced a major cyber security breach. Many patients are complaining that their personal medical records are fully exposed on the Internet and someone can find them with a simple Google search. Bob's boss is very worried because of regulations that protect those dat a. Which of the following regulations is mostly violated?
- A. Pll
- B. HIPPA/PHl
- C. ISO 2002
- D. PCIDSS
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 62
The IH&R team in an organization was handling a recent malware attack on one of the hosts connected to the organization's network. Edwin, a member of the IH&R team, was involved in reinstating lost data from the backup medi a. Before performing this step, Edwin ensured that the backup does not have any traces of malware.
Identify the IH&R step performed by Edwin in the above scenario.
- A. Incident containment
- B. Notification
- C. Eradication
- D. Recovery
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 63
RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder.
Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 64
Matias, a network security administrator at an organization, was tasked with the implementation of secure wireless network encryption for their network. For this purpose, Matias employed a security solution that uses 256-bit Galois/Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP-256) to maintain the authenticity and confidentiality of data.
Identify the type of wireless encryption used by the security solution employed by Matias in the above scenario.
- A. WEP encryption
- B. WPA2 encryption
- C. WPA encryption
- D. WPA3 encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA3 encryption is the type of wireless encryption used by the security solution employed by Matias in the above scenario. WPA3 encryption is the latest and most secure version of Wi-Fi Protected Access, a protocol that provides authentication and encryption for wireless networks. WPA3 encryption uses 256-bit Galois/Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP-256) to maintain the authenticity and confidentiality of data. WPA3 encryption also provides enhanced protection against offline dictionary attacks, forward secrecy, and secure public Wi-Fi access . WPA2 encryption is the previous version of Wi-Fi Protected Access, which uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) or Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) for data encryption. WEP encryption is an outdated and insecure version of Wi-Fi security, which uses RC4 stream cipher for data encryption. WPA encryption is an intermediate version of Wi-Fi security, which uses TKIP for data encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Riley sent a secret message to Louis. Before sending the message, Riley digitally signed the message using his private key. Louis received the message, verified the digital signature using the corresponding key to ensure that the message was not tampered during transit.
Which of the following keys did Louis use to verify the digital signature in the above scenario?
- A. Riley's public key
- B. Louis's private key
- C. Riley's private key
- D. Louis's public key
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 66
An FTP server has been hosted in one of the machines in the network. Using Cain and Abel the attacker was able to poison the machine and fetch the FTP credentials used by the admin. You're given a task to validate the credentials that were stolen using Cain and Abel and read the file flag.txt
- A. white@hat
- B. hat@red
- C. blue@hat
- D. red@hat
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 67
Richards, a security specialist at an organization, was monitoring an IDS system. While monitoring, he suddenly received an alert of an ongoing intrusion attempt on the organization's network. He immediately averted the malicious actions by implementing the necessary measures.
Identify the type of alert generated by the IDS system in the above scenario.
- A. False negative
- B. True negative
- C. False positive
- D. True positive
Answer: D
Explanation:
A true positive alert is generated by an IDS system when it correctly identifies an ongoing intrusion attempt on the network and sends an alert to the security professional. This is the desired outcome of an IDS system, as it indicates that the system is working effectively and accurately
NEW QUESTION # 68
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ECCouncil 212-82 certification exam consists of 50 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within 60 minutes. 212-82 exam covers a wide range of cybersecurity topics, including network security, cryptography, ethical hacking, and incident management. 212-82 exam also includes scenarios that test the candidate's ability to identify and respond to cybersecurity threats in real-world situations.
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