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Detailed Guide on 212-89 Areas
The first tested area is focused on incident handling and response. Thus, the candidates should know how to deal with computer security, information security, and security policies. Moreover, you will also learn about risk management in incident response and threat intelligence. Incident handling is also part of the tested area. Finally, the candidates should possess in-depth knowledge of how information security is implemented to resolve the issues related to security.
When it comes to the second category, it focuses on email security incidents. Particularly, this area involves email security features as well as various email incidents. Also, the candidate's knowledge of how suspicious emails are is measured in such a topic. Besides, you will also need to identify phishing emails as well as to detect deceptive emails to be successful in this domain.
As you remember, the third objective involves process handling. It describes the incident readiness, security auditing, and incident handling alongside response. The candidate will also get knowledge about how to do forensic investigation for incident handling. The eradication and recovery are also included in the exam syllabus.
The fourth section defines application-level incidents. It deals with web application vulnerabilities and threats. Here, you will also be able to identify the web attacks that occur in the application. Finally, it involves the eradication of the web application.
The fifth tested area focuses on mobile & network incidents. It allows the candidates to learn about illegal access, denial-of-service, and wireless networks. You will also come across network attacks, unsuitable usage, and mobile platform risks and vulnerabilities. Moreover, the abolition of mobile recovery and incidents is also part of the official exam.
The sixth domain includes malware incidents. Particularly, it describes the malware as a whole, malicious codes, and malware incidents. What's more, you will learn information about malware facets and how it affects the information system and applications.
The seventh objective revolves around insider threats. It defines insider threat particularities and how to detect and prevent them. Within such a section, you will also get to know about the employee monitoring tools and insider threats eradication.
The eighth area focuses on cloud environment incidents. It involves the security of cloud computing and cloud computing threats. Plus, you will learn about recovery in the cloud and the eradication threats in this area of 212-89 exam. Mainly, the candidate's knowledge about incidents occurring in a cloud environment is assessed during such a test.
The ninth portion is first response and forensic readiness. It focuses on digital evidence, forensic readiness, and volatile evidence. You will also be tested upon computer forensics, the protection of electronic evidence, and static evidence. On top of these, the candidate should also have knowledge of anti-forensics for attempting the final test.
NEW QUESTION 63
A living high level document that states in writing a requirement and directions on how an agency plans to protect its information technology assets is called:
- A. Information security Procedure
- B. Information security Baseline
- C. Information security Policy
- D. Information security Standard
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 64
Digital evidence must:
- A. Not prove the attackers actions
- B. Be Authentic, complete and reliable
- C. Be Volatile
- D. Cast doubt on the authenticity and veracity of the evidence
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 65
A malware code that infects computer files, corrupts or deletes the data in them and requires a host file to propagate is called:
- A. Virus
- B. Trojan
- C. RootKit
- D. Worm
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 66
________________ attach(es) to files
- A. Worms
- B. Spyware
- C. Viruses
- D. adware
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 67
A threat source does not present a risk if NO vulnerability that can be exercised for a particular threat source.
Identify the step in which different threat sources are defined:
- A. System characterization
- B. Identification Vulnerabilities
- C. Threat identification
- D. Control analysis
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 68
Insiders may be:
- A. All the above
- B. Ignorant employees
- C. Disgruntled staff members
- D. Carless administrators
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 69
The open source TCP/IP network intrusion prevention and detection system (IDS/IPS), uses a rule-driven
language, performs real-time traffic analysis and packet logging is known as:
- A. Snort
- B. SAINT
- C. Wireshark
- D. Nessus
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 70
An organization faced an information security incident where a disgruntled employee passed sensitive access
control information to a competitor. The organization's incident response manager, upon investigation, found
that the incident must be handled within a few hours on the same day to maintain business continuity and
market competitiveness. How would you categorize such information security incident?
- A. Low level incident
- B. Ultra-High level incident
- C. High level incident
- D. Middle level incident
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 71
Quantitative risk is the numerical determination of the probability of an adverse event and the extent of the
losses due to the event. Quantitative risk is calculated as:
- A. (Probability of Loss) X (Loss)
- B. Significant Risks X Probability of Loss X Loss
- C. (Loss) / (Probability of Loss)
- D. (Probability of Loss) / (Loss)
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 72
Business continuity is defined as the ability of an organization to continue to function even after a disastrous event, accomplished through the deployment of redundant hardware and software, the use of fault tolerant systems, as well as a solid backup and recovery strategy. Identify the plan which is mandatory part of a business continuity plan?
- A. Business Recovery Plan
- B. New business strategy plan
- C. Forensics Procedure Plan
- D. Sales and Marketing plan
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 73
Incident prioritization must be based on:
- A. All the above
- B. Criticality of affected systems
- C. Potential impact
- D. Current damage
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 74
The open source TCP/IP network intrusion prevention and detection system (IDS/IPS), uses a rule-driven language, performs real-time traffic analysis and packet logging is known as:
- A. Snort
- B. SAINT
- C. Wireshark
- D. Nessus
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 75
The network perimeter should be configured in such a way that it denies all incoming and outgoing traffic/ services that are not required. Which service listed below, if blocked, can help in preventing Denial of Service attack?
- A. POP3 service
- B. SAM service
- C. Echo service
- D. SMTP service
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 76
Based on the some statistics; what is the typical number one top incident?
- A. Un-authorized access
- B. Phishing
- C. Malware
- D. Policy violation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 77
The IDS and IPS system logs indicating an unusual deviation from typical network traffic flows; this is called:
- A. An Indication
- B. A Precursor
- C. A Proactive
- D. A Reactive
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 78
Authorized users with privileged access who misuse the corporate informational assets and directly affects the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the assets are known as:
- A. Insider threats
- B. Social Engineers
- C. Outsider threats
- D. Zombies
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 79
Insiders understand corporate business functions. What is the correct sequence of activities performed by Insiders to damage company assets:
- A. Activate malware, gain privileged access then install malware
- B. Install malware, gain privileged access, then activate
- C. Gain privileged access, install malware then activate
- D. Gain privileged access, activate and install malware
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 80
Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system,
network, or applications by flooding the network with high volume of traffic that consumes all existing network
resources.
- A. URL Manipulation
- B. Denial of Service Attack
- C. XSS Attack
- D. SQL Injection
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 81
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