JN0-351 PDF Pass Leader, JN0-351 Latest Real Test [Q21-Q43]

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JN0-351 PDF Pass Leader, JN0-351 Latest Real Test

Valid JN0-351 Test Answers & JN0-351 Exam PDF


Juniper JN0-351 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Describe the concepts, benefits, or functionalities of VLANs
  • STP and Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) concepts
Topic 2
  • Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor
  • Port security, including MAC limiting, DHCP snooping
Topic 3
  • Identify the concepts, benefits, or operations of Layer 2 firewall filters
  • Demonstrate knowledge how to configure, monitor, or troubleshoot Spanning Tree
Topic 4
  • Describe the concepts, operations, or functionalities of BGP
  • Identify the concepts, requirements, or functionalities of IP tunneling

 

NEW QUESTION # 21
Which statement is correct about the storm control feature?

  • A. The storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
  • B. The storm control configuration only applies to traffic being sent between the forwarding and control plane.
  • C. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches.
  • D. The storm control feature requires a special license on EX Series switches.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Option A is correct. The storm control feature is enabled in the factory-default configuration on EX Series switches12. On EX2200, EX3200, EX3300, EX4200, and EX6200 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control for broadcast and unknown unicast traffic on all switch interfaces2. On EX4300 switches, the factory default configuration enables storm control on all Layer 2 switch interfaces1.
Option B is incorrect. The storm control feature does not require a special license on EX Series switches34.
Option C is incorrect. There's no information available that suggests the storm control feature is not supported on aggregate Ethernet interfaces.
Option D is incorrect. The storm control configuration applies to traffic at the ingress of an interface5, not just between the forwarding and control plane.


NEW QUESTION # 22
Exhibit

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct?

  • A. The root bridge is using a bridge priority of 4k.
  • B. The root bridge has not been elected for this RSTP topology.
  • C. The local device is the root bridge for this RSTP topology.
  • D. The local device is using a bridge priority of 4k.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
In a Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) topology, the root bridge is determined by the switch with the lowest bridge priority value12. If all switches have the same priority, then the root bridge is assigned to the switch whose MAC address's hex value is the lowest2. The default bridge priority value is 3276832. However, without the actual exhibit, it's difficult to definitively determine which device is the root bridge. But based on the options provided, if we assume that the local device has a lower bridge priority or a lower MAC address than other devices in the network, then it could be considered as the root bridge for this RSTP topology45.


NEW QUESTION # 23
What are two characteristics of RSTP alternate ports? (Choose two.)

  • A. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate lower cost path to the root bridge.
  • B. RSTP alternate ports are active ports used to forward frames toward the root bridge.
  • C. RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge.
  • D. RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
A is correct because RSTP alternate ports block traffic while receiving superior BPDUs from a neighboring switch. An alternate port is a backup port for a root port, which means it receives better BPDUs from another bridge than the current root port1. However, an alternate port does not forward any traffic, as it is in a discarding state2. It only listens to BPDUs and waits for the root port to fail. If the root port fails, the alternate port can immediately transition to a forwarding state and become the new root port1.
C is correct because RSTP alternate ports provide an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge. An alternate port is selected based on the same criteria as the root port, which are the lowest bridge ID, the lowest path cost, the lowest sender port ID, and the lowest receiver port ID3. However, an alternate port receives a higher cost BPDU than the root port, otherwise it would be the root port itself1. Therefore, an alternate port provides an alternate higher cost path to the root bridge than the root port.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Which two events cause a router to advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)

  • A. When a static route to the 224.0.0.6 address is created.
  • B. When an OSPF adjacency is established.
  • C. When an interface has the OSPF passive option enabled.
  • D. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
A is correct because when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. An OSPF adjacency is a logical relationship between two routers that agree to exchange routing information using the OSPF protocol1. To establish an OSPF adjacency, the routers must be in the same area, have compatible parameters, and exchange hello packets1. Once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the routers will exchange database description (DBD) packets, which contain summaries of their link-state databases (LSDBs)1. The LSDBs include information about the connected networks and their costs2. Therefore, when an OSPF adjacency is established, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.
D is correct because when a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, a router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors. The 224.0.0.5 address is the multicast address for all OSPF routers3. A static route to this address can be used to send OSPF hello packets to all OSPF neighbors on a network segment3. This can be useful when the network segment does not support multicast or when the router does not have an IP address on the segment3. When a static route to the 224.0.0.5 address is created, the router will send hello packets to this address and establish OSPF adjacencies with other routers on the segment3. As explained above, once an OSPF adjacency is formed, the router will advertise a connected network to OSPF neighbors through DBD packets.


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which two types of tunnels are able to be created on all Junos devices? (Choose two.)

  • A. STP
  • B. GRE
  • C. IP-IP
  • D. IPsec

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Explanation
Junos devices support various types of tunnels for different purposes12.
Option B is correct. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate a wide variety of network layer protocols inside virtual point-to-point links over an Internet Protocol network1. Junos devices support GRE tunnels1.
Option D is correct. IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session1. Junos devices support IPsec tunnels1.
Option A is incorrect. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is not a type of tunnel. It's a network protocol designed to prevent loops in a bridged Ethernet local area network2.
Option C is incorrect. While Junos devices do support IP-IP (also known as IP tunneling), it's not supported on all Junos devices1.


NEW QUESTION # 26
Exhibit

You have configured a GRE tunnel. To reduce the risk of dropping traffic, you have configured a keepalive OAM probe to monitor the state of the tunnel; however, traffic drops are still occurring.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

  • A. The "event link-adjacency-loss" option must be set.
  • B. For GRE tunnels, the OAM protocol requires that the BFD protocols also be used.
  • C. LLDP needs to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface.
  • D. The hold-time value must be two times the keepalive-time value

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
A keepalive OAM probe is a mechanism that can be used to monitor the state of a GRE tunnel and detect any failures in the tunnel path. A keepalive OAM probe consists of sending periodic packets from one end of the tunnel to the other and expecting a reply. If no reply is received within a specified time, the tunnel is considered down and the line protocol of the tunnel interface is changed to down1.
To configure a keepalive OAM probe for a GRE tunnel, you need to specify two parameters: the keepalive-time and the hold-time. The keepalive-time is the interval between each keepalive packet sent by the local router. The hold-time is the maximum time that the local router waits for a reply from the remote router before declaring the tunnel down2.
According to the Juniper Networks documentation, the hold-time value must be two times the keepalive-time value for a GRE tunnel2. This is because the hold-time value must account for both the round-trip time of the keepalive packet and the processing time of the remote router. If the hold-time value is too small, it may cause false positives and unnecessary tunnel flaps.
In the exhibit, the configuration shows that the keepalive-time is set to 10 seconds and the hold-time is set to
15 seconds for the gr-1/1/10.1 interface. This means that the local router will send a keepalive packet every 10 seconds and will wait for 15 seconds for a reply from the remote router. However, this hold-time value is not two times the keepalive-time value, which violates the recommended configuration. This may cause traffic drops if the remote router takes longer than 15 seconds to reply.
Therefore, option D is correct, because the hold-time value must be two times the keepalive-time value for a GRE tunnel. Option A is incorrect, because BFD is not required for GRE tunnels; BFD is another protocol that can be used to monitor tunnels, but it is not compatible with GRE keepalives3. Option B is incorrect, because the "event link-adjacency-loss" option is not related to GRE tunnels; it is an option that can be used to trigger an action when a link goes down4. Option C is incorrect, because LLDP does not need to be removed from the gr-1/1/10.1 interface; LLDP is a protocol that can be used to discover neighboring devices and their capabilities, but it does not interfere with GRE tunnels5.
References:
1: Configuring Keepalive Time and Hold time for a GRE Tunnel Interface 2: keepalive | Junos OS | Juniper Networks 3: Configuring Bidirectional Forwarding Detection 4: event link-adjacency-loss | Junos OS | Juniper Networks 5: Understanding Link Layer Discovery Protocol


NEW QUESTION # 27
Exhibit

Referring to the exhibit, which two configuration changes must you apply for packets to reach from R1 to R3 using IS-IS? (Choose two.)

  • A. On R3 enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface
  • B. On R3 disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/4 interface.
  • C. On R1, enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.
  • D. On R1, disable Level 2 on the ge-0/0/1 interface.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
A: On R1, enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface. In IS-IS, both levels (Level 1 and Level 2) are enabled by default when you enable IS-IS on an interface1. Level 1 systems route within an area2. If the destination is outside an area, Level 1 systems route toward a Level 2 system2. Therefore, enabling Level 1 on the ge-0/0/1 interface on R1 would allow packets to reach from R1 to R3.
D: On R3 enable Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface Similarly, enabling Level 1 on the ge-0/0/4 interface on R3 would allow packets to reach from R1 to R3.
These explanations are based on the IS-IS configuration documents and learning resources available at Juniper Networks1 and Cisco34.


NEW QUESTION # 28
You have two OSPF routers forming an adjacency. R1 has a priority of 32 and a router ID of 192.168.1.2. R2 has a priority of 64 and a router ID of 192.168.1.1. The routers were started at the same time and all other OSPF settings are the default settings.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

  • A. Router IDs must match for an adjacency to form.
  • B. R1 will be the BDR.
  • C. At least three routers are required for a DR/BDR election
  • D. R2 will be the BDR.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
In OSPF, the Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR) are elected based on the priority of the routers1. The router with the highest priority becomes the DR, and the router with the second highest priority becomes the BDR1. If there is a tie in priority, then the router with the highest Router ID is chosen1.
In this scenario, R2 has a higher priority (64) than R1 (32), so R2 will become the DR1. Since R1 has the second highest priority, it will become the BDR1. Therefore, option D is correct.


NEW QUESTION # 29
You deployed a new EX Series switch with DHCP snooping enabled and you do not see any entries in the snooping databases for an interface. Which two Juniper configurations for that interface caused this issue?
(Choose two.)

  • A. The interface is configured as a trunk port.
  • B. Dynamic ARP inspection is enabled on the interface.
  • C. The interface is configured as a disabled port.
  • D. MAC limiting is enabled on the interface.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
A is correct because the interface is configured as a disabled port. A disabled port does not forward any traffic, including DHCP packets. Therefore, DHCP snooping cannot learn any MAC addresses or lease information from a disabled port1.
C is correct because the interface is configured as a trunk port. By default, all trunk ports on the switch are trusted for DHCP snooping2. This means that DHCP snooping does not inspect or filter any DHCP packets received on a trunk port. Therefore, DHCP snooping does not add any entries to the snooping database for a trunk port2.


NEW QUESTION # 30
Exhibit.

You want to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers shown in the exhibit. Which three actions will you perform in this scenario? (Choose three.)

  • A. Configure loopback interface peering.
  • B. Configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses.
  • C. Configure a cluster ID.
  • D. Configure BGP multihop.
  • E. Configure an MD5 peer authentication.

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:
A is correct because you need to configure BGP multihop to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. BGP multihop is a feature that allows BGP peers to establish a session over multiple hops, instead of requiring them to be directly connected1. By default, EBGP peers use a time-to-live (TTL) value of 1 for their packets, which means that they can only reach adjacent neighbors1. However, if you configure BGP multihop with a higher TTL value, you can allow EBGP peers to communicate over multiple routers in between1. This can provide redundancy in case of a link failure or a router failure between the EBGP peers.
B is correct because you need to configure loopback interface peering to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. Loopback interface peering is a technique that uses loopback interfaces as the source and destination addresses for BGP sessions, instead of physical interfaces2. Loopback interfaces are virtual interfaces that are always up andreachable as long as the router is operational2. By using loopback interface peering, you can avoid the dependency on a single physical interface or link for the BGP session, and use multiple paths to reach the loopback address of the peer2. This can provide redundancy and load balancing for the EBGP peering.
C is correct because you need to configure routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses to enable redundancy for the EBGP peering between the two routers. Routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses are necessary to ensure that the routers can reach each other's loopback addresses over multiple hops2. You can use static routes or dynamic routing protocols to advertise and learn the routes for the peer loopback interface IP addresses2. Without these routes, the routers will not be able to establish or maintain the BGP session using their loopback interfaces.


NEW QUESTION # 31
Exhibit.

You are using OSPF to advertise the subnets that are used by the Denver and Dallas offices. The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

  • A. Enable the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets.
  • B. Create static routes on the switches using the local vMX router's loopback interface for the next hop.
  • C. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets.
  • D. Configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the Dallas and Denver subnets using Type 5 LSAs.

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Explanation
The routers that are directly connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets are not advertising the connected subnets. This can be resolved by redistributing the connected subnets into OSPF1.
Option C suggests to configure and apply a routing policy that redistributes the connected Dallas and Denver subnets. This is correct because redistribution allows routes from one routing protocol to be communicated to another, and in this case, it allows the connected subnets to be advertised through OSPF1.
Option D suggests enabling the passive option on the OSPF interfaces that are connected to the Dallas and Denver subnets. This is also correct because in OSPF, a passive interface is an interface that belongs to the OSPF router, but does not send OSPF Hello packets1. It's typically used on an interface that you don't want to use for OSPF adjacencies, but you still want to advertise its IP address1. Therefore, enabling passive interface can help in advertising the Dallas and Denver subnets.


NEW QUESTION # 32
You are concerned about spoofed MAC addresses on your LAN.
Which two Layer 2 security features should you enable to minimize this concern? (Choose two.)

  • A. DHCP snooping
  • B. dynamic ARP inspection
  • C. static ARP
  • D. IP source guard

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
A is correct because dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents ARP spoofing attacks. ARP spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to send fake ARP messages to associate a spoofed MAC address with a legitimate IP address. This can result in traffic redirection, man-in-the-middle attacks, or denial-of-service attacks. DAI validates ARP packets by checking the source MAC address and IP address against a trusted database, which is usually built by DHCP snooping1. DAI discards any ARP packets that do not match the database or have invalid formats1.
C is correct because DHCP snooping is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents DHCP spoofing attacks.
DHCP spoofing is a technique that allows an attacker to act as a rogue DHCP server and offer fake IP addresses and other network parameters to unsuspecting clients. This can result in traffic redirection, man-in-the-middle attacks, or denial-of-service attacks. DHCP snooping filters DHCP messages by classifying switch ports as trusted or untrusted. Trusted ports are allowed to send and receive any DHCP messages, while untrusted ports are allowed to send only DHCP requests and receive only valid DHCP replies from trusted ports2. DHCP snooping also builds a database of MAC addresses, IP addresses, lease times, and binding types for each client2.


NEW QUESTION # 33
Which two statements about redundant trunk groups on EX Series switches are correct? (Choose two.)

  • A. Redundant trunk groups load-balance traffic across two designated uplink interfaces.
  • B. Redundant trunk groups must be connected to the same aggregation switch.
  • C. If the active link fails, then the secondary link automatically takes over.
  • D. Layer 2 control traffic is permitted on the secondary link

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation
Redundant Trunk Groups (RTGs) on EX Series switches provide a simple solution for network recovery when a trunk port on a switch goes down1. They are configured on the access switch and contain two links: a primary or active link, and a secondary link1. Therefore, option B is correct because if the active link fails, the secondary link automatically starts forwarding data traffic without waiting for normal spanning-tree protocol convergence1.
Option D is also correct. In a typical enterprise network composed of distribution and access layers, RTGs are used where one Access switch is connected to two different uplink switches2. This implies that RTGs must be connected to the same aggregation switch2.


NEW QUESTION # 34
After receiving a BGP route, which two conditions are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received route is valid? (Choose two)

  • A. The local preference is greater than 0.
  • B. The AS-path length is greater than 0.
  • C. The next hop is reachable.
  • D. The loops do not exist.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
B is correct because the loops do not exist is one of the conditions that are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received BGP route is valid. A loop in BGP means that a route has been advertised by the same AS more than once, which can cause routing instability and inefficiency1. To prevent loops, BGP uses the AS-path attribute, which lists the AS numbers that a route has traversed from the origin to the destination2. The receiving router checks the AS-path attribute of the received route and discards it if it finds its own AS number in the list2. This way, BGP avoids accepting routes that contain loops.
C is correct because the next hop is reachable is one of the conditions that are verified by the receiving router to ensure that the received BGP route is valid. The next hop is the IP address of the next router that is used to forward packets to the destination network3. The receiving router checks the next hop attribute of the received route and verifies that it has a valid route to reach it3. If the next hop is not reachable, the received route is not usable and is rejected by the receiving router3. This way, BGP ensures that only feasible routes are accepted.


NEW QUESTION # 35
You implemented the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action on all interfaces on your switch.
In this scenario, which statement is correct when a violation occurs?

  • A. By default, the violation will automatically be cleared after 300 seconds and the interface will resume sending and receiving traffic for all learned devices.
  • B. By default, devices that are learned before the violation occurs are still allowed to send and receive traffic through the specific interface.
  • C. By default, you must manually clear the violation for the interface to send and receive traffic again.
  • D. By default, the interface will continue to send and receive traffic for all connected devices after a violation has occurred.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
When the MAC address limit feature with the shutdown action is implemented on a switch, if a violation occurs, the interface is disabled and a system log entry is generated1. If the switch has been configured with the port-error-disable statement, the disabled interface recovers automatically upon expiration of the specified disable timeout1. However, if the switch has not been configured for auto-recovery from port error disabled conditions, you must manually clearthe violation by running the clear ethernet-switching port-error command for the interface to send and receive traffic again1. This explanation is based on the Enterprise Routing and Switching Specialist (JNCIS-ENT) documents and learning resources available at Juniper Networks1.


NEW QUESTION # 36
Exhibit.

What is the management IP address of the device shown in the exhibit?

  • A. 128.0.0.1
  • B. 172.23.12.100
  • C. 172.23.11.10
  • D. 10.210.20.233

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The management IP address of a device is the IP address that is used to access the device for configuration and monitoring purposes. It is usually assigned to a dedicatedmanagement interface that is separate from the data interfaces. The management interface can be accessed via SSH, Telnet, HTTP, or other protocols.
In the exhibit, the list of interfaces and their statuses shows that the management interface isme0. This interface has an admin status ofup, a protocol status ofinet, a local address of172.23.12.100/24, and a remote address ofunspecified. This means that the me0 interface is active, has an IPv4 address assigned, and is not connected to another device.
Therefore, the management IP address of the device shown in the exhibit is172.23.12.100.
References:
[Management Interfaces Overview] : [Displaying Interface Status Information]


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which two statements about BGP facilitate the prevention of routing loops between two autonomous systems?
(Choose two.)

  • A. EBGP routers will prepend their AS number when advertising routes to their neighbors
  • B. EBGP routers will drop routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH
  • C. EBGP routers will append their AS number when advertising routes to their neighbors.
  • D. EBGP routers will only accept routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is a protocol designed to exchange routing and reachability information among autonomous systems (AS) on the internet1.
Option A is correct. When an EBGP router advertises routes to its neighbors, it appends its AS number to the AS_PATH attribute1. This is a key mechanism in BGP to prevent routing loops1.
Option C is correct. BGP has a built-in loop prevention mechanism whereby if a BGP router detects its own AS in the AS_PATH attribute, it will drop the prefix and will not continue to advertise it2. This helps to prevent routing loops2.
Option B is incorrect. EBGP routers do not accept routes that contain their own AS number in the AS_PATH2. Instead, they drop such routes as part of the loop prevention mechanism2.
Option D is incorrect. While it's true that EBGP routers append their AS number when advertising routes, they do not prepend their AS number1. The term "prepend" in BGP usually refers to a technique used to influence path selection by artificially lengthening the AS_PATH3.


NEW QUESTION # 38
Which two statements are true about the default VLAN on Juniper switches? (Choose two.)

  • A. The default VLAN is set to a VLAN ID of 1 by default
  • B. The default VLAN ID can be changed.
  • C. The default VLAN ID is not assigned to any interface.
  • D. The default VLAN ID is not visible.

Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Explanation
On Juniper switches, the default VLAN is set to a VLAN ID of 1 by default12. This means that all interfaces on the switch are members of VLAN 1 until they are specifically assigned to another VLAN12. Therefore, option A is correct.
The default VLAN ID can be changed12. This allows network administrators to configure the switch to use a different VLAN as the default, if necessary12. Therefore, option D is correct.


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which statement is correct about graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)?

  • A. With no other high availability features enabled, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd.
  • B. When combined with NSR, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd.
  • C. The PFE restarts and the kernel and interface information is lost.
  • D. GRES has a helper mode and a restarting mode.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The Graceful Routing Engine Switchover (GRES) feature in Junos OS enables a router with redundant Routing Engines to continue forwarding packets, even if one Routing Engine fails1. GRES preserves interface and kernel information, ensuring that traffic is not interrupted1. However, GRES does not preserve the control plane1.
To preserve routing during a switchover, GRES must be combined with either Graceful Restart protocol extensions or Nonstop Active Routing (NSR)1. When GRES is combined with NSR, nearly 75 percent of line rate worth of traffic per Packet Forwarding Engine remains uninterrupted during GRES1. Any updates to the primary Routing Engine are replicated to the backup Routing Engine as soon as they occur1.
Therefore, when GRES is combined with NSR, routing is preserved and the new master RE does not restart rpd1.


NEW QUESTION # 40
You are receiving multiple BGP routes from an upstream neighbor and only want to advertise a single summarized prefix to your internal OSPF neighbors. This route should only be advertised when you are receiving these BGP routes from this neighbor.
In this scenario, which type of route should you create?

  • A. static route using the resolve feature
  • B. aggregate route
  • C. generate route
  • D. static route using qualified next hops

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
In this scenario, you should create an 1. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes1. They help minimize the number of routing tables in an IP network by consolidating selected multiple routes into a single route advertisement1. This approach is in contrast to non-aggregation routing, in which every routing table contains a unique entry for each route1.
Therefore, option A is correct. Options B, C, and D are not correct because:
Static route using the resolve feature: This type of route uses the resolve feature to install a static route in the routing table only if a specific condition is met1. However, it does not provide the capability to summarize multiple routes into a single prefix.
Generate route: This type of route generates a route that is always present in the routing table and can be used to summarize routes. However, it does not have the capability to only advertise the route when specific BGP routes are being received from a neighbor1.
Static route using qualified next hops: This type of route allows for the specification of multiple next-hop addresses for a static route1. However, it does not provide the capability to summarize multiple routes into a single prefix.


NEW QUESTION # 41
Which statement about aggregate routes is correct?

  • A. Aggregate routes can only be used for static routing but not for dynamic routing protocols.
  • B. Aggregate routes are automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table.
  • C. Aggregate routes are always preferred over more specific routes, even when the specific routes have a better path.
  • D. Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Aggregate routes are used for advertising summarized network prefixes12. They help minimize the number of routing tables in an IP network by consolidating selected multiple routes into a single route advertisement1. This approach is in contrast to non-aggregation routing, in which every routing table contains a unique entry for each route1.
Therefore, option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are not correct because:
Aggregate routes can be used with both static routing and dynamic routing protocols1.
Aggregate routes are not automatically generated for all of the subnets in a routing table. They need to be manually configured1.
Aggregate routes are not always preferred over more specific routes. The route selection process in Junos OS considers several factors, including route preference and metric, before determining the active route1.


NEW QUESTION # 42
Exhibit.

Which router will become the OSPF BDR if all routers are powered on at the same time?

  • A. R4
  • B. R1
  • C. R3
  • D. R2

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
OSPF DR/BDR election is a process that occurs on multi-access data links. It is intended to select two OSPF nodes: one to be acting as the Designated Router (DR), and another to be acting as the Backup Designated Router (BDR).The DR and BDR are responsible for generating network LSAs for the multi-access network and synchronizing the LSDB with other routers on the same network1.
The DR/BDR election is based on two criteria: the OSPF priority and the router ID. The OSPF priority is a value between 0 and 255 that can be configured on each interface participating in OSPF. The default priority is
1. A priority of 0 means that the router will not participate in the election and will never become a DR or BDR. The router with the highest priority will become the DR, and the router with the second highest priority will become the BDR. If there is a tie in priority, then the router ID is used as a tie-breaker. The router ID is a
32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in an OSPF domain.It can be manually configured or automatically derived from the highest IP address on a loopback interface or any active interface2.
In this scenario, all routers have the same priority of 1, so the router ID will determine the outcome of the election. The router IDs are shown in the exhibit as RID values. The highest RID belongs to R4 (10.10.10.4), so R4 will become the DR. The second highest RID belongs to R3 (10.10.10.3), so R3 will become the BDR.
References:
1:OSPF DR/BDR Election: Process, Configuration, and Tuning2:OSPF Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR)


NEW QUESTION # 43
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