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The target audience of the NCLEX-RN exam is those nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. The nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam need to be aware of the exam syllabus and the important points in it. This is the first step in your preparation for NCLEX-RN exam. Cram the study guide with the relevant content and study it thoroughly. Puncture and laceration is another important area of knowledge that you need to know well. Practice the NCLEX-RN sample questions and answers as many times as possible. The study guide provides you with all the information you need to pass your NCLEX-RN exam. You will need to focus more on the study guide. Weight gain is a very common problem among the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. Policy and procedure is another important point that needs to be known well before you start the preparation. Textbooks and notes are the two most important sources of information for you in the NCLEX-RN exam. Exam sources such as flashcards, practice exams and question papers will help you prepare for the NCLEX-RN Dumps. Question bank is another important source of information for the nursing professionals who are preparing for NCLEX-RN exam. You can use it as an effective resource of information to pass your NCLEX-RN exam.
NCLEX-RN exam consists of a maximum of 265 questions, and candidates have up to six hours to complete it. NCLEX-RN exam is computer-adaptive, which means that the difficulty of the questions will vary based on the candidate's performance. NCLEX-RN exam covers a range of topics, including patient care, safety, pharmacology, health promotion, and disease prevention.
NEW QUESTION # 276
The nurse knows that children are more susceptible to respiratory tract infections owing to physiological differences. These childhood differences, when compared to an adult, include:
- A. Fewer alveoli, slower respiratory rate
- B. Rounded shape of chest, smaller volume of air
- C. Diaphragmatic breathing, larger volume of air
- D. Larger number of alveoli, diaphragmatic breathing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Although a child has fewer alveoli than an adult, the child's respiratory rate is faster. (B) Although a child may use diaphragmatic breathing, the adult exchanges a larger volume of air. (C) The adult has a larger number of alveoli than a child. (D) The child's chest is rounded whereas the adult chest is more of an oval shape, and the child does exchange a smaller volume of air than an adult.
NEW QUESTION # 277
Following a fracture of the left femur, a client develops symptoms of osteomyelitis. During the acute phase of osteomyelitis, nursing care is directed toward:
- A. Allowing the client out of bed only in a wheelchair or gurney to minimize weight bearing on the left leg
- B. Instituting physical therapy to ensure restoration of optimal functioning of the leg
- C. Providing the client with a high-protein, high-fiber diet to promote healing
- D. Moving or turning the client's left leg carefully to minimize pain and discomfort
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set D
Explanation:
(A) Any movement of his affected limb will cause discomfort to the child. (B) No weight bearing will be allowed until healing is well underway to avoid pathological fractures. (C) The child will be anorexic and may experience vomiting. Diet should be simple and high caloric until appetite returns and symptoms subside. (D) Physical therapy is instituted only after infection subsides.
NEW QUESTION # 278
A 25-year-old outpatient presents with a diagnosis of compulsive personality disorder. His coworkers become annoyed with his rigid, perfectionistic manner and preoccupation with trivial details and schedules. A nursing intervention appropriate for this client would include:
- A. Contracting with him for the amount of time he will spend on the compulsive behaviors
- B. Encouraging the client to set a time schedule and deadlines for himself
- C. Encouraging him to engage in recreational activities
- D. Avoiding discussion of his annoying behavior
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) This answer is incorrect. The client will work hard at the activity instead of enjoying it. (B) This answer is incorrect. The nurse should allow the client to discuss these thoughts, within limits, not to avoid discussing them. (C) This answer is incorrect. The compulsive client tends to control time to excess. It should not be encouraged. (D) This answer is correct. A contract with the client regarding the amount of time that will be spent discussing the compulsive activities is appropriate. Time allotted should be gradually decreased.
NEW QUESTION # 279
At 30 weeks' gestation, a client is admitted to the unit in premature labor. Her physician orders that an IV be started with 500 mL D5W mixed with 150 mg of ritodrine stat. The RN prepares the IV solution with the medication. The RN knows that clients receiving the medication ritodrine IV should be observed closely for which one of the following side effects:
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Increase in hematocrit and hemoglobin
- D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set C
Explanation:
(A) Ritodrine is a sympathomimetic α2-adrenergic agonist that can cause an elevation of blood glucose and plasma insulin in pregnant women. Hyperglycemia can occur in women with abnormal carbohydrate metabolism because of their inability to release more insulin. (B) Hypokalemia can occur resulting from the action of the _-mimetics. It results from a displacement of the extracellular potassium into the intracellular space. (C) Ritodrine causes vasodilation of vessel walls, which can lead to hypotension. The body compensates by increasing heart rate and pulse pressure. (D) There is a lowering of serum iron resulting from the action of _-mimetics to activate hematopoiesis.
NEW QUESTION # 280
A client is admitted to the hospital for an induction of labor owing to a gestation of 42 weeks confirmed by dates and ultrasound. When she is dilated 3 cm, she has a contraction of 70 seconds. She is receiving oxytocin.
The nurse's first intervention should be to:
- A. Prepare for the delivery because the client is probably in transition
- B. Check FHT
- C. Turn off the IV oxytocin
- D. Notify the attending physician
Answer: C
Explanation:
(A) FHT should be monitored continuously with an induction of labor; this is an accepted standard of care. (B) The physician should be notified, but this is not the first intervention the nurse should do. (C) The standard of care for an induction according to the Association of Women's Health, Obstetric, and Neonatal Nurses and American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology is that contractions should not exceed 60 seconds in an induction. Inductions should simulate normal labor; 70-second contractions during the latent phase (3 cm) are not the norm. The next contractions can be longer and increase risks to the mother and fetus. (D) Contractions lasting 60-90 seconds during transition are typical; this provides a good distractor. The nurse needs to be knowledgeable of the phases and stages of labor.
NEW QUESTION # 281
Nursing care of the infant prior to surgical closure of a meningomyelocele would include:
- A. Aspirate any fluid from sac
- B. Cover sac with dry sterile dressing
- C. Do not apply dressing; keep sac open to air
- D. Cover sac with saline-soaked sterile dressing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A dry, sterile dressing would adhere to the sac, causing tissue damage. (B) A saline-soaked sterile dressing protects the sac from contamination by air and prevents drying. (C) A sac open to air causes drying and potential for contamination. (D) This intervention is not an independent nursing action.
NEW QUESTION # 282
A 2-year-old toddler is hospitalized with epiglottitis. In assessing the toddler, the nurse would expect to find:
- A. Drooling
- B. A productive cough
- C. Expiratory stridor
- D. Crackles in the lower lobes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) A productive cough is not associated with epiglottitis. (B) Children with epiglottitis seldom have expiratory stridor. Inspiratory stridor is more common due to edema of the supraglottic tissues. (C) Because of difficulty with swallowing, drooling often accompanies epiglottitis. (D) Crackles are not heard in the lower lobes with epiglottitis because the infection is usually confined to the supraglottic structures.
NEW QUESTION # 283
A measurable outcome criterion in the nursing care of an adolescent with anorexia nervosa would be:
- A. Exhibiting increased self-esteem
- B. Accepting her present body image
- C. Having an improved perception of her body image
- D. Verbalizing realistic feelings about her body
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) This outcome criterion is inadequate because the term "accepts" is not directly measurable. (B) This outcome criterion is directly measurable because specific goal-related verbalizations can be heard and verified by the nurse. (C) "Improved perception of body image" is not directly measurable and is therefore open to many interpretations. (D) Although long-term goals for the anorexic client should focus on increased self-esteem, this outcome criterion (as stated) does not include specific indicators or behaviors for which to observe.
NEW QUESTION # 284
A 20-year-old female client delivers a stillborn infant. Following the delivery, an appropriate response by the labor nurse to the question, "Why did this happen to my baby?" is:
- A. "You're young. You can have other children later."
- B. "It's God's will. It was probably for the best. There was something probably wrong with your baby."
- C. "I know your other children will be a great comfort to you."
- D. "I can see you're upset. Would you like to see and hold your baby?"
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The mother and the father require support; the nurse should not minimize their grief in this situation. (B) Attachment to this infant occurs during the pregnancy for both the mother and father. Another child cannot replace this child. (C) Attachment to this infant occurs during the pregnancy for both the mother and father.
Siblings will not replace their feelings or minimize their loss of this infant. (D) Holding and viewing the infant decreases denial and may facilitate the grief process. The nurse should prepare family members for how the infant appears ("she is bruised") and provide support.
NEW QUESTION # 285
Three weeks following discharge, a male client is readmitted to the psychiatric unit for depression. His wife stated that he had threatened to kill himself with a handgun. As the nurse admits him to the unit, he says, "I wish I were dead because I am worthless to everyone; I guess I am just no good." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate at this time?
- A. "You've been feeling sad and alone for some time now?"
- B. "I don't think you are worthless. I'm glad to see you, and we will help you."
- C. "Don't you think this is a sign of your illness?"
- D. "I know with your wife and new baby that you do have a lot to live for."
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A)
This response does not acknowledge the client's feelings.
(B)
This is a closed question and does not encourage communication.
(C)
This response negates the client's feelings and does not require a response from the client. (D) This acknowledges the client's implied thoughts and feelings and encourages a response.
NEW QUESTION # 286
Chorioamnionitis is a maternal infection that is usually associated with:
- A. Postterm deliveries
- B. Maternal pyelonephritis
- C. Maternal dehydration
- D. Prolonged rupture of membranes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Chorioamnionitis is an inflammation of the chorion and amnion that is generally associated with premature or prolonged rupture of membranes. (B) Postterm deliveries have not been shown to increase the risk of chorioamnionitis unless there has been prolonged rupture of membranes. (C) Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection that develops in 20%-40% of untreated maternal UTIs. (D) Maternal dehydration, though of great concern, is not related to chorioamnionitis.
NEW QUESTION # 287
A client is started on prednisone 2.5 mg po bid. Which of the following instructions should be included in her discharge teaching specific to this medication?
- A. Increase your oral intake of fluids to at least 4000 mL every day.
- B. Brush your teeth at least 4 times a day with a firm toothbrush.
- C. Immediately stop taking the prednisone if you feel depressed.
- D. Avoid contact with people who have contagious illnesses.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Fluid retention is a side effect of prednisone. The nurse should teach clients to weigh themselves daily and to observe for signs of edema. If these signs of fluid retention occur, they should notify the physician. (B) Prednisone, a glucocorticoid, suppresses the normal immune response making the client more susceptible to infections. (C) An increase in bleeding tendencies is a side effect of prednisone therapy. The nurse should teach clients to use preventive measures (i.e., electric razors and soft toothbrushes). (D) Depression and personality changes are side effects of prednisone therapy. Prednisone should never be discontinued abruptly.
NEW QUESTION # 288
The nurse is teaching a mother care of her child's spica cast. The mother states that he complains of itching under the edge of the cast. One nonpharmacological technique the nurse might suggest would be:
- A. "Gently thump on cast to dislodge dried skin that causes the itching."
- B. "Guide a towel under and through the cast and moveit back and forth to relieve the itch."
- C. "Slide a ruler under the cast and scratch the area."
- D. "Blowing air under the cast using a hair dryer on cool setting often relieves itching."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Cool air will often relieve pruritus without damaging the cast or irritating the skin. (B) The nurse should never force anything under the cast, because the cast may become damaged and skin breakdown may occur. (C) Forcing an object under the cast could lead to cast damage and skin breakdown. The object may become lodged under the cast necessitating cast removal. (D) This technique does not dislodge skin cells. It could damage the cast and cause skin breakdown.
NEW QUESTION # 289
A young boy tells the nurse, "I don't like my Dad to kiss or hug my Mom. I love my Mom and want to marry her." The nurse recognizes this stage of growth and development as:
- A. Oedipus complex
- B. Ego
- C. Electra complex
- D. Superego
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) The Electra complex is the erotic attachment of the female child to the father. (B) The Oedipus complex is characterized by jealousy toward the parent of the same sex and erotic attachment to the parent of the opposite sex. (C) The superego as described by Freud is the part of personality that is associated with internalized parental and societal control. (D) The ego as described by Freud is the part of personality that is associated with reality assessment.
NEW QUESTION # 290
A female client has married recently. A month ago she visited her physician with complaints of burning on urination. She was given a prescription for trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) DS bid for 10 days. She was admitted through the emergency room on Saturday evening complaining of flank pain. Her temperature was 104_F. A preliminary urinalysis revealed 31 bacteria along with red and white blood cells in the urine. A preliminary diagnosis of pyelonephritis was made. During a nursing admission assessment, which statement by the client demonstrates a possible cause for pyelonephritis?
- A. "I took the Bactrim for 6 or 7 days. The burning stopped, so I saved the rest of the medication for the next time."
- B. "I have not been drinking six to eight glasses of water each day as the nurse had instructed."
- C. "I recently had the flu, which could be settling in my kidneys now."
- D. "I'm afraid I may have something wrong with my bladder because I have been getting bladder infections frequently since I've been married."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Although it is important that the client drink adequate fluids while treating a bladder infection with trimethoprimsulfamethoxazole, the failure to do so will not cause pyelonephritis. (B) A stricture or abnormality may cause the progression of bladder infection to urinary tract infection, but this is rare. There is no indication in this situation that this has occurred. (C) The most common cause of pyelonephritis is improper treatment of bladder infections. The client typically feels better after several days, discontinues the medication, and saves the remainder forthe next occurrence of a bladder infection. For this reason, it is imperative to provide client education related to completion of the prescribed medication. (D) There is no evidence that infection in another body system could cause pyelonephritis.
NEW QUESTION # 291
A 72-year-old male client had the Foley catheter that was inserted during the transurethral resection of his prostate removed today. He is concerned about the urinary incontinence he is having since removal of the Foley catheter. The nurse explains that:
- A. This is related to the bladder spasms and will soon stop
- B. The nurse will keep him dry, and he should notify the nurse when this happens
- C. He should not be concerned about it because it will resolve quickly
- D. This is usually temporary
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This problem is temporary, but it may take some time to resolve, especially in an older man. (B) This problem is usually temporary, but it may take some time to resolve. (C) Keeping the client dry will not relieve his anxiety about his incontinence. (D) The bladder spasms are not the cause of the client's incontinence.
NEW QUESTION # 292
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The National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) is a standardized exam that is designed to assess the knowledge, skills, and abilities of individuals who aspire to become registered nurses. NCLEX-RN exam is administered in the United States and Canada to evaluate the competency of nurses who wish to obtain a license to practice nursing in these countries.
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