[Sep-2025] Cisco 300-215 Dumps - Secret To Pass in First Attempt
Cisco 300-215 Exam Dumps [2025] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question
Cisco 300-215 certification exam is a challenging and highly regarded credential for IT professionals who want to specialize in conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies for CyberOps. To pass the exam, candidates need to have a solid understanding of Cisco security products and solutions, as well as practical experience in configuring and managing these products. Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps certification can help professionals advance their careers and increase their earning potential in the IT security industry.
NEW QUESTION # 51
What is the function of a disassembler?
- A. aids performing static malware analysis
- B. aids transforming symbolic language into machine code
- C. aids viewing and changing the running state
- D. aids defining breakpoints in program execution
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
+analysis&hl=en&as_sdt=0&as_vis=1&oi=scholart
NEW QUESTION # 52
What is the goal of an incident response plan?
- A. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions
- B. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading
- C. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization
- D. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
The goal of an incident response plan (IRP) is to provide structured procedures for responding to cybersecurity incidents in a way that limits damage, contains the threat, and ensures business continuity. As outlined in the NIST SP 800-61 and Cisco CyberOps Associate study guide, containment and minimizing the impact of incidents is the primary goal of an IRP.
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NEW QUESTION # 53
A workstation uploads encrypted traffic to a known clean domain over TCP port 80. What type of attack is occurring, according to the MITRE ATT&CK matrix?
- A. Exfiltration Over C2 Channel
- B. Exfiltration Over Web Service
- C. Command and Control Activity
- D. Exfiltration Over Asymmetric Encrypted Non-C2 Protocol
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the MITRE ATT&CK matrix, when encrypted traffic is tunneled through a legitimate protocol such as HTTP (port 80) to a non-malicious domain, this aligns with the tactic "Exfiltration Over Asymmetric Encrypted Non-C2 Protocol" (T1048.002). The attacker is trying to hide exfiltration in otherwise benign traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 54
An organization recovered from a recent ransomware outbreak that resulted in significant business damage. Leadership requested a report that identifies the problems that triggered the incident and the security team's approach to address these problems to prevent a reoccurrence. Which components of the incident should an engineer analyze first for this report?
- A. motive and factors
- B. risk and RPN
- C. cause and effect
- D. impact and flow
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 55
An "unknown error code" is appearing on an ESXi host during authentication. An engineer checks the authentication logs but is unable to identify the issue. Analysis of the vCenter agent logs shows no connectivity errors. What is the next log file the engineer should check to continue troubleshooting this error?
- A. var/log/shell.log
- B. /var/log/vmksummary.log
- C. /var/log/syslog.log
- D. var/log/general/log
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.7/com.vmware.vsphere.monitoring.doc/GUID-
832A2618-6B11-4A28-9672-93296DA931D0.html
NEW QUESTION # 56
What is a use of TCPdump?
- A. to view encrypted data fields
- B. to change IP ports
- C. to analyze IP and other packets
- D. to decode user credentials
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCPdump is a command-line packet analyzer used to capture and inspect network packets. As described in the study guide, "tcpdump is a command-line interface tool that is used to capture packets on a network. It is a very powerful and popular network protocol analyzer". The tool allows cybersecurity professionals to analyze headers and payloads of network traffic, making it valuable in forensic investigations and network diagnostics.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A threat intelligence report identifies an outbreak of a new ransomware strain spreading via phishing emails that contain malicious URLs. A compromised cloud service provider, XYZCloud, is managing the SMTP servers that are sending the phishing emails. A security analyst reviews the potential phishing emails and identifies that the email is coming from XYZCloud. The user has not clicked the embedded malicious URL.
What is the next step that the security analyst should take to identify risk to the organization?
- A. Delete email from user mailboxes and update the incident ticket with lessons learned.
- B. Reset the reporting user's account and enable multifactor authentication.
- C. Find any other emails coming from the IP address ranges that are managed by XYZCloud.
- D. Create a detailed incident report and share it with top management.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since the phishing email originates from a known compromised cloud provider (XYZCloud), the correct immediate action for the security analyst is to determine the broader scope of exposure. This involves checking whether other users in the organization received similar emails from the same potentially malicious source. Therefore, querying for emails from theIP address rangesorSMTP domainslinked to XYZCloud is essential for identifying other possible attack vectors.
This step aligns with the containment phase of the incident response lifecycle, as outlined in theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, where threat hunting and log analysis are used to determine the extent of compromise and prevent lateral movement or further exposure. Only after the scope is understood should remediation or reporting actions follow.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Email-Based Threats and Containment Strategy during Incident Response.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)
- A. Block emails sent from [email protected] with an attached pdf file with md5 hash
"cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70". - B. Update the AV to block any file with hash "cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70".
- C. Block all emails with subject containing "cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70".
- D. Block all emails sent from an @state.gov address.
- E. Block all emails with pdf attachments.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The XML (STIX/CybOX format) details anemail-based threatindicator. Specifically:
* Theemail addresscontains "@state.gov" (not exact match, so blocking all @state.gov would be overbroad).
* Theattachment is a PDFfile with a specifiedMD5 hash: cf2b3ad32a8a4cfb05e9dfc45875bd70.
* Theattachment sizeis 87022 bytes.
From a threat mitigation perspective:
* Ais correct: Updating AV to block or flag files matching the malicious hash is a standard response.
* Dis correct: The email address context and hash together provide a precise rule for blocking-this prevents false positives.
Incorrect options:
* Boverreaches by blocking an entire domain without confirming threat context.
* Cwould stop all PDFs, which is impractical.
* Eis incorrect; there is no indication that the hash appears in the subject line.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is analyzing a .LNK (shortcut) file recently received as an email attachment and blocked by email security as suspicious. What is the next step an engineer should take?
- A. Delete the suspicious email with the attachment as the file is a shortcut extension and does not represent any threat.
- B. Upload the file to a virus checking engine to compare with well-known viruses as the file is a virus disguised as a legitimate extension.
- C. Quarantine the file within the endpoint antivirus solution as the file is a ransomware which will encrypt the documents of a victim.
- D. Open the file in a sandbox environment for further behavioral analysis as the file contains a malicious script that runs on execution.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 60
A malware outbreak revealed that a firewall was misconfigured, allowing external access to the SharePoint server. What should the security team do next?
- A. Harden the SharePoint server
- B. Scan for and fix vulnerabilities on the firewall and server
- C. Review and update all firewall rules and the network security policy
- D. Disable external IP communications on all firewalls
Answer: C
Explanation:
The incident stems from a policy-level issue rather than a technical vulnerability. According to incident response best practices, the priority should be to review and update firewall rules and ensure that the network security policy aligns with the principle of least privilege and correct access segmentation.
NEW QUESTION # 61
What is the steganography anti-forensics technique?
- A. sending malicious files over a public network by encapsulation
- B. concealing malicious files in ordinary or unsuspecting places
- C. changing the file header of a malicious file to another file type
- D. hiding a section of a malicious file in unused areas of a file
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
https://blog.eccouncil.org/6-anti-forensic-techniques-that-every-cyber-investigator-dreads/
NEW QUESTION # 62
An organization fell victim to a ransomware attack that successfully infected 256 hosts within its network. In the aftermath of this incident, the organization's cybersecurity team must prepare a thorough root cause analysis report. This report aims to identify the primary factor or factors that led to the successful ransomware attack and to develop strategies for preventing similar incidents in the future. In this context, what should the cybersecurity engineer include in the root cause analysis report to demonstrate the underlying cause of the incident?
- A. log files from each of the 256 infected hosts
- B. method of infection employed by the ransomware
- C. complete threat intelligence report shared by the National CERT Association
- D. detailed information about the specific team members involved in the incident response effort
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the Cisco CyberOps Associate guide, the goal of a root cause analysis is to determine how an attacker successfully exploited a system so that similar vulnerabilities can be mitigated in the future. The
"method of infection" (e.g., phishing email with malicious attachment, drive-by download, credential compromise, etc.) is the most relevant factor in understanding the initial access vector and subsequent spread of ransomware across the network.
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NEW QUESTION # 63
Refer to the exhibit.
According to the SNORT alert, what is the attacker performing?
- A. brute-force attack against the web application user accounts
- B. SQL injection attack against the target webserver
- C. brute-force attack against directories and files on the target webserver
- D. XSS attack against the target webserver
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 64
What are YARA rules based upon?
- A. IP addresses
- B. HTML code
- C. network artifacts
- D. binary patterns
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 65
Refer to the exhibit.
An alert came with a potentially suspicious activity from a machine in HR department. Which two IOCs should the security analyst flag? (Choose two.)
- A. WScript.exe initiated by powershell.exe
- B. cmd.exe starting powershell.exe with Base64 conversion
- C. powershell.exe used on HR machine
- D. WScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe
- E. cmd.exe executing from \Device\HarddiskVolume3\
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
The exhibit shows a series of process executions that form a suspicious chain involving scripting engines and obfuscated commands:
* One critical indicator iscmd.exe executing PowerShell with obfuscated (Base64-encoded) arguments
. The use of Base64 is a known method used by attackers to mask malicious commands. This aligns with attack techniques defined under MITRE ATT&CK T1059 (Command and Scripting Interpreter) and T1086 (PowerShell abuse). Therefore, option D is valid.
* Another important IOC isWScript.exe acting as a parent of cmd.exe, which is abnormal in typical business environments. This indicates potential misuse of Windows Script Host (WSH) to launch commands, often seen in phishing or malware dropper scenarios. Thus, option E is also valid.
Options A and B by themselves are not definitive IOCs-PowerShell and cmd.exe are legitimate administrative tools and frequently used in Windows environments.
Option C is not supported by the exhibit-the reverse (powershell.exe initiated by WScript.exe) is what's seen, not the other way around.
These patterns align with theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, which specifies that chaining of interpreters (e.g., WScript # cmd # PowerShell) with encoded commands is a key indicator of compromise during forensic analysis.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Identifying Malicious Activity in Host-Based Artifacts and Command-Line Analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A security team received an alert of suspicious activity on a user's Internet browser. The user's anti-virus software indicated that the file attempted to create a fake recycle bin folder and connect to an external IP address. Which two actions should be taken by the security analyst with the executable file for further analysis? (Choose two.)
- A. Analyze the Magic File type in Cisco Umbrella.
- B. Evaluate the process activity in Cisco Umbrella.
- C. Network Exit Localization in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).
- D. Analyze the TCP/IP Streams in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).
- E. Evaluate the behavioral indicators in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which technique is used to evade detection from security products by executing arbitrary code in the address space of a separate live operation?
- A. token manipulation
- B. privilege escalation
- C. process injection
- D. GPO modification
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1055/
NEW QUESTION # 68
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