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PRMIA Operational Risk Manager (ORM) Sample Questions:

1. Which loss event type is the failure to timely deliver collateral classified as under the Basel II framework?

A) External fraud
B) Clients, products and business practices
C) Information security
D) Execution, Delivery & Process Management

2. According to the Basel II framework, subordinated term debt that was originally issued 4 years ago with amaturity of 6 years is considered a part of:

A) Tier 3 capital
B) Tier 1 capital
C) None of the above
D) Tier 2 capital

3. The principle underlying the contingent claims approach to measuring credit risk equates the cost of eliminating credit risk for a firm to be equal to:

A) the cost of a call on thefirm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt
B) the value of a put on the firm's assets with a strike equal to the value of the debt
C) the market valuationof the firm's equity less the value of its liabilities
D) the probability of the firm's assets falling below the critical value for default

4. CreditRisk+, the actuarial model for calculating portfolio credit risk, is based upon:

A) the exponential distribution
B) the Poisson distribution
C) the log-normal distribution
D) the normal distribution

5. Which of the following statements is true:
I. Basel II requires banks to conduct stress testing in respect of their credit exposures in addition to stress testing for market risk exposures II. Basel II requires pooled probabilities of default (and not individual PDs for each exposure) to be used for credit risk capital calculations

A) Neither statement is true
B) I
C) II
D) I & II

Solutions: