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NEW QUESTION # 84
For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:
Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^
- A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.
- B. TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2
- C. TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3
- D. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To determine the optimal test execution schedule that minimizes the number of configuration switches and respects the dependencies, we start with the initial configuration, CONF1.
* TC4: It has no dependencies and runs on CONF1 (initial configuration).
* TC3: Depends on TC4 and runs on CONF1. Since TC4 is already executed, we can proceed with TC3.
* TC2: Depends on TC4 and runs on CONF2. We switch to CONF2 after TC3.
* TC1: No dependencies and runs on CONF2. Since we are already in CONF2, we can execute TC1 next.
* TC5: Depends on TC1 and runs on CONF2. Since TC1 is already executed, we can proceed with TC5 without additional configuration switches.
By following this sequence (TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5), we respect the dependencies and minimize the number of configuration switches
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following is a possible reason for introducing a defect in software code?
- A. Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing
- B. Focus on static testing over dynamic testing
- C. Improper unit testing
- D. Improper system testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The ISTQB CTFL syllabus identifies several causes for defects in software. One prominent reason, as highlighted in the curriculum, is the pressure and rush to meet tight deadlines, which can lead to insufficiently reviewed or tested code being moved into further stages of testing or production. This scenario describes rushing to meet a deadline as a potential cause for defects because it may compromise the thoroughness of code development and testing.References:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section
1.4.1 "Why is Testing Necessary?".
NEW QUESTION # 86
During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?
*Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.
*Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.
*Determining whether more tests are needed.
Select the correct answer:
- A. Test design.
- B. Test planning.
- C. Test monitoring and control.
- D. Test analysis.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The activities of checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria, assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs, and determining whether more tests are needed fall under the category of test monitoring and control. This phase involves ongoing assessment and adjustment of the test activities to ensure they meet the test objectives and quality goals.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Consider the following code
int premium=2500;
if (age<30)
{
premium = premium +1500:
}
Which options suits for a correct combination of Boundary value and expected result. Assume first number as boundary followed by expected result.
- A. 29, 2500
30. 1500 - B. 29. 4000
30. 2500 - C. 29, 1500
30. 2500 - D. 30, 1500
31,2500
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the given code snippet, the premium is increased by 1500 if the age is less than 30. Therefore, at the boundary value of age 29, the premium should be 2500 + 1500 = 4000, and at age 30, the premium should remain at its initial value of 2500, as the condition is no longer met. Option B correctly reflects this with 29,
4000 and 30, 2500 as the boundary value and the expected results, respectively.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?
- A. Test environment details
- B. Seventy and priority
- C. How to reproduce the defect
- D. How to fix the defect
Answer: D
Explanation:
A defect report is a document that records the details of a defect found during testing. A defect report typically contains the following items:
Identifier: A unique identifier for the defect report
Summary: A concise summary of the defect
Description: A detailed description of the defect, including the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, and any relevant screenshots or logs Severity: The degree of impact that the defect has on the system Priority: The level of urgency for resolving the defect Status: The current state of the defect, such as new, open, resolved, closed, etc.
Resolution: The action taken to resolve the defect, such as fix, workaround, reject, etc. Out of these items, the one that is not needed to specify in a defect report is how to fix the defect. How to fix the defect is a technical solution that is usually determined by the developer who is assigned to resolve the defect. How to fix the defect is not part of the defect report, but rather part of the code change or patch that is delivered to fix the defect. The other items are needed to specify in a defect report, as they provide essential information for identifying, tracking and resolving defects. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?
- A. Covering only start and end states
- B. Covering all transitions at least once
- C. Can't be determined
- D. Covering all states at least once
Answer: B
Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page 49-50.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?
I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.
II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.
Hi. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.
iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.
Select the correct answer:
- A. iii and iv
- B. i and ii
- C. i and iii
- D. i and iv
Answer: D
Explanation:
The benefits of continuous integration include: i. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes. iv. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working. These benefits help in maintaining the stability and quality of the codebase by integrating and testing changes frequently and providing quick feedback to developers.
NEW QUESTION # 91
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
- B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- C. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- D. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
Answer: C
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and
* maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following statements about statement coverage is TRUE?
- A. Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that 100% branch coverage is achieved
- B. Achieving 100% statement coverage ensures that no variable within the code has been used without being initialised.
- C. Achieving 80% statement coverage ensures that 80% of all executable statements within the code have been exercised.
- D. Achieving 90% statement coverage ensures that 90% branch coverage is achieved.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement coverage measures the percentage of executable statements that have been exercised by a test suite.
Achieving 80% statement coverage means that 80% of the executable code lines have been tested. This metric helps in understanding how much of the code has been covered during testing. However, it does not guarantee branch coverage, variable initialization, or detection of all possible defects. The ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0 explains statement coverage as a measure of the extent to which the code has been tested, without implying other types of coverage or testing goals.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?
I In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.
II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting
III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews
IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings
- A. II, Ill
- B. I, II
- C. I, IV
- D. III, IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
The following statements about reviews are true:
I) In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author. A walkthrough is a type of review that has a predefined objective and agenda but no formal process or roles. A walkthrough is typically led by the author of the work product under review, who guides the participants through a scenario and solicits feedback.
IV) Management rarely participates in technical review meetings. A technical review is a type of review that has a predefined objective and agenda but no formal process or roles. A technical review is typically performed by peers with technical expertise in order to evaluate technical aspects of a work product. Management rarely participates in technical review meetings, as they may not have sufficient technical knowledge or skills to contribute effectively. The following statements about reviews are false:
II) Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting. An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection is characterized by a structured review meeting with a fixed duration and agenda.
III) Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews. Preparation before the review meeting is part of formal reviews, such as inspections or technical reviews. Preparation involves checking
NEW QUESTION # 94
Which ONE of the following statements about acceptance testing is NOT correct?
- A. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually NOT part of acceptance testing.
- B. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release.
- C. The customers or system users are often responsible for the acceptance testing.
- D. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Acceptance testing is a level of testing performed to verify that a software product meets the agreed acceptance criteria and is acceptable for delivery. Acceptance testing is often performed by the customers or system users, who are the main stakeholders of the software product. The main goal of acceptance testing is to build confidence in the system, not find defects, as defects should have been detected and fixed in earlier levels of testing. Acceptance testing is the last level of testing performed prior to system release, unless there are any changes or fixes that require re-testing. Testing of disaster recovery and backup/restore is usually part of acceptance testing, as these are important aspects of system reliability and security that affect the customer satisfaction and trust. Therefore, statement A is not correct, while statements B, C and D are correct. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 20-21.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Which of the following statements about how different types of test tools support testers is true?
- A. The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests
- B. The support offered by a bug prediction tool is often used by testers to track the bugs they found
- C. The support offered by a test data preparation tool is often leveraged by testers to run automated regression test suites
- D. The support offered by a continuous integration tool is often leveraged by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model
Answer: A
Explanation:
The support offered by a performance testing tool is often leveraged by testers to run load tests, which are tests that simulate a large number of concurrent users or transactions on the system under test, in order to measure its performance, reliability, and scalability. Performance testing tools can help testers to generate realistic workloads, monitor system behavior, collect and analyze performance metrics, and identify performance bottlenecks. The other statements are false, because:
* A test data preparation tool is a tool that helps testers to create, manage, and manipulate test data, which are the inputs and outputs of test cases. Test data preparation tools are not directly related to running automated regression test suites, which are test suites that verify that the system still works as expected after changes or modifications. Regression test suites are usually executed by test execution tools, which are tools that can automatically run test cases and compare actual results with expected results.
* A bug prediction tool is a tool that uses machine learning or statistical techniques to predict the likelihood of defects in a software system, based on various factors such as code complexity, code churn, code coverage, code smells, etc. Bug prediction tools are not used by testers to track the bugs they found, which are the actual defects that have been detected and reported during testing. Bugs are
* usually tracked by defect management tools, which are tools that help testers to record, monitor, analyze, and resolve defects.
* A continuous integration tool is a tool that enables the integration of code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository, and the execution of automated builds and tests, in order to ensure the quality and consistency of the software system. Continuous integration tools are not used by testers to automatically generate test cases from a model, which are test cases that are derived from a representation of the system under test, such as a state diagram, a decision table, a use case, etc. Test cases can be automatically generated by test design tools, which are tools that support the implementation and maintenance of test cases, based on test design specifications or test models.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.4.1, Types of Test Tools
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Performance Testing Tool, Test Data Preparation Tool, Bug Prediction Tool, Continuous Integration Tool, Test Execution Tool, Defect Management Tool, Test Design Tool
NEW QUESTION # 96
The following decision table is used to assist a doctor in determining the drug therapy to prescribe for a patient (aged 6 to 65 years) diagnosed with acute sinusitis. The table consists of three Boolean conditions and six actions
Based only on the given information, which of the following statements is TRUE?
- A. Column 7 represents an impossible situation and thus can be deleted
- B. Columns 1 and 3 can be merged into a single column
- C. Columns 5 and 7 can be merged into a single column
- D. Columns 2, 4, 6 and 8 can be merged into a single column
Answer: B
Explanation:
Decision tables are used to model complex decision logic by considering different combinations of conditions and actions. Based on the given decision table for prescribing drug therapy:
* Column 1 and Column 3 both result in the same actions (prescribing Amoxicillin).
* These columns can be merged because the actions taken do not depend on whether the patient is taking anticoagulant therapy (both are 'T' for this condition).
Thus, combining these columns simplifies the decision table without losing any information.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Which of the following statements describes regression testing?
I. Retesting of a fixed defect
II. Testing of an already tested program
III. Testing of new functionality in a program
IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing
V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once
- A. II
- B. II, IV, V
- C. I, III, IV
- D. I, IV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Regression testing is the re-running of functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change1 It does not involve retesting of a fixed defect, testing of new functionality, or applying only to functional testing. Tests that are used for regression testing should be repeatable, because they are used to verify the stability of the software after each change2 References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section
4.2.2, Page 291; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?
- A. The type of product being developed
- B. The project manager's preference
- C. The project team's overall familiarity with the model
- D. Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model
Answer: A
Explanation:
The choice of a software development lifecycle (SDLC) model is primarily influenced by the type of product being developed. Different products and project requirements may demand different SDLC models to address specific challenges and needs efficiently. For instance, a complex, safety-critical product might best be served by a Waterfall model due to its structured nature and phase dependencies, while a more iterative and incremental model might be suited for projects requiring frequent feedback and changes.References:ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.1 "Software Development Lifecycles".
NEW QUESTION # 99
The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option D correctly explains what is represented by the lines A, B and the axes X, Y in a testing metrics chart.
According to option D:
* X-axis represents Time
* Y-axis represents Count
* Line A represents Number of open bugs
* Line B represents Total number of executed tests
This information is essential in understanding and analyzing the testing metrics of a completed project.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.5.1, Page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 100
The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?
- A. This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.
- B. The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard
- C. Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development
- D. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization
Answer: D
Explanation:
The IEEE 829 standard is a widely used specification for test documentation, but it is not mandatory or universal. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization. The standard does not require any approval from management, marketing or development for any deviation, nor does it depend on the type of project (military or consumer market). The standard also does not guarantee high quality test documentation regimes, as it only provides a general outline and format, not the actual content or quality criteria. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 16.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?
- A. Covering only start and end states
- B. Covering all transitions at least once
- C. Can't be determined
- D. Covering all states at least once
Answer: B
Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. References = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page
49-50.
NEW QUESTION # 102
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